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1 - 4: Unleashing Potential in Airport Innovation.
A Comprehensive Exam Study Guide Latest Updated
What are the two major categories of pavement? - ansFlexible and rigid What are some types of flexible pavement? - ansGrass, dirt, gravel and asphalt Why are paved surfaces necessary at airports? - ansTo support the critical loads imposed on them; to produce a smooth, skid-resistant and safe-riding surface What is the benefit of using a rigid pavement such as Portland Cement Concrete? - ansIt is about half the lifetime cost of asphalt, with a service life of 30+ years versus 5-15 years for asphalt. Concrete is more expensive up front though, so asphalt is common at low revenue airports such as GA. What are two major elements that make pavements deteriorate? - answeathering and aircraft loads For bearing strengths of 12,500lbs or greater, what method is used to express the effect of an individual aircraft on different pavements? - ansComparing ACN to PCN (Aircraft Classification Number-Pavement Classification Number) ACN less than or equal to PCN What does the Pavement Classification Number (PCN) represent to the operator/pilot? - ansPCN is the maximum pavement bearing strength for unrestricted aircraft operations. What is the Load Classification Number (LCN) used to describe? - ansPavement bearing strengths less than 12,500lbs What are the five major categories of pavement distress? - anscracking, joint seal damage, disintegration, distortion, loss of skid resistance How far are landing distances increased on wet pavement? - ansBy 15 percent or more Where are wind cones located? - ansat least one on the airport, lighted if night carrier operations occur; additional cones placed so that every takeoff and landing runway has a cone visible to pilots When must an airport operator conduct an airfield self-inspection? - ansdaily; when required by an unusual condition; immediately after an accident or incident How long must airfield self-inspection records be kept? - ans12 consecutive calendar months How often must operations personnel be trained on self-inspection related activities and how long must training records be kept? - anstraining every 12 consecutive calendar months, records maintained for 24 months How long must a record of airfield condition NOTAMs be kept? - ans12 months What are four types of inspections? - ansRegular scheduled; continuous surveillance; periodic; special How is safety oversight defined? - ansthose means and activities by which airport management ensures effective implementation of safety-related standards and procedures Why does an airport need a Safety Management System? - ansto increase the likelihood that airport operators will detect and correct safety problems before those problems result in an aircraft incident. In November 2005, the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) required what? - ansRequired certificated international airports to establish an SMS What are the four pillars of the Safety Management System? - anspolicy/objectives, risk management, assurance, and promotion What are four key elements of airport safety policy and objectives? - ansSafety program methods, processes, authorities and accountability What are the five phases of the safety risk management process? - ansPhase 1: describe the system; Phase 2: identify the hazard; Phase 3: determine the risk; Phase 4: assess and analyze the risk; Phase 5: treat the risk
1 - 4: Unleashing Potential in Airport Innovation.
A Comprehensive Exam Study Guide Latest Updated
What four items enhance an airport's ability to identify hazards? - ansoperational expertise; training in hazard analysis techniques; use of a hazard analysis tool; documenting the process What are four risk mitigation strategies? - ansavoidance (stop or shift the operation), assumption (accepting the risk), control (minimize or eliminate the risk), transfer (shift risk to another area) What are four types of risks taken by airport operators? - ansInformed, uninformed, benefit- driven, pointless What does safety assurance include? - ansauditing and oversight What does safety promotion involve? - anstraining, education, communication and continuous improvement What are a few communication methods that may be effective for a safety program? - ansseminars, bulletins or notices, lessons-learned, and cross-tell What airports must comply with Part 139? - ansairports serving scheduled air carrier aircraft designed for more than 9 passenger seats and unscheduled air carrier aircraft designed for at least 31 passenger seats, to include joint or shared use airports What airports are not subject to Part 139? - ansserving passenger carrier operations solely as an alternate airport; those operated by the U.S.; airports in AK that only serve scheduled operations of small air carrier aircraft or times when not serving large air carrier aircraft; heliports What are the definitions large and small air carrier aircraft? - ansLarge: designed for at least 31 passenger seats; Small: designed for more than 9 and fewer than 31 passenger seats What is the definition of an air carrier operation? - anstakeoff or landing to include 15 minutes before and after What is the definition of a Class I airport? - ansserves scheduled large air carrier aircraft and can also serve unscheduled large air carrier aircraft and scheduled small air carrier aircraft What is the definition of a Class II airport? - ansserves scheduled small air carrier aircraft and unscheduled large air carrier aircraft What is the definition of a Class III airport? - ansserves scheduled small air carrier aircraft What is the definition of a Class IV airport? - ansserves unscheduled large air carrier aircraft What distinguishes a scheduled operation of an air carrier? - ansadvance offering of the departure location, departure time and arrival location. How long is an Airport Operating Certificate in effect? - ansUntil the certificate holder surrenders it or it is revoked or suspended by the Administrator. What provision could allow an exemption to Part 139 rescue and firefighting equipment requirements? - ansif the airport enplanes less than 1/4 of 1% (0.0025) of the total number of passengers enplaned at all US air carrier airports Deviations from part 139 are allowed in response to an emergency, but what reporting requirements exist in this situation? - answithin 14 days notify the FAA Regional Airport Division of the nature, duration and extent of the deviation (in writing if requested) How soon before issuing an amendment to an Airport Certification Manual must the airport notify FAA? - ans30 days 14 CFR Part 119 - ansAir Carrier and Commercial Operations Direct Air Carrier - anscertificated domestic/foreign air carrier, air taxi or commuter air carrier that engages in the operations of aircraft under a certificate, permit or exemption issued by the DOT Where can you find safety procedures? - ansCFRs and ACM
1 - 4: Unleashing Potential in Airport Innovation.
A Comprehensive Exam Study Guide Latest Updated
Are DEC and CFME eligible for AIP funds? - ansYes Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) - ansenhance taxiing capabilities in low vis concerns and reduce potential for runway incursions When is a SMGCS plan required? - ansScheduled air carrier operations in visibility less than 1200 RVR Snow and Ice Control Plan - ansAddresses Pre and Post winter subjects to prepare airport for winter season; addresses instructions and procedures that should be taken by airport when dealing with winter storms When is a runway incursion most likely to occur? - ansPoor communication; Loss of Situational Awareness; Poor Vis; Fatigue; External Pressures What are the three types of airport fire rescue designs? - ans1. Airport staff: train and operate own ARFF
- Contractual provider or local city firefighting unit
- Combine police and fire fighting duties Who must be notified if any hazardous substance has been released into bodies of water? - ansNational Response Center What act required material safety data sheets (MSDS) to be available and posted in all workplaces where hazardous material exists? - ansSARA What does the AEP include? - ans1. Procedures for prompt response to all emergencies
- Provide adequate guidance to each person who must implement the procedures
- Provide emergency response for the largest air carrier aircraft in its Index Group What does the AEP address? - ansemergencies within the authority and responsibility to respond; May represent threat to airport because of proximity; airport has responsibilities under local/regional emergency plans and mutual aid agreements Memorandums of Understanding (MOUs)/Memorandums of Agreement (MOA) - ansrelationship between on-airport emergency services and other mutual aid entities What are the four related actions to Comprehensive Emergency Management? - ansMitigation; Preparedness: Response; Recovery What are the 4 steps to developing an AEP? - ans1. Planning Team
- Review other applicable regs, standards and guidance
- Hazard/Risk Analysis
- Develop procedures What instructions are required in an AEP? - ansbomb incidents and sabotage, hijacking and other unlawful interference with aircraft operations What is the primary purpose of the AEP? - ansDelegation of authority; Assignment of responsibilities; Coordination of efforts by responding personnel; Orderly transition between normal and emergency operations Funcitonal Annexes - ansplans organized around the performance of broad tasks or wide- scale operations; does not repeat the info of the Basic Plan of the AEP Sections of the AEP - ans1. Basic Plan
- Functional Annexes
- Hazard Specific Section
- SOPs and Checklists NTSB - ansFederal org responsible for investigating and determining accident causes, making safety recommendations and reporting the facts and circumstances involved in all US civil aviation accidents
1 - 4: Unleashing Potential in Airport Innovation.
A Comprehensive Exam Study Guide Latest Updated
Who has the authority to remove aircraft after an accident? - ansNTSB; no wreckage to be removed or disturbed until it is released by the NTSB If there is an accident off airport property, who is responsible for preserving the accident? - ansLocal Jurisdiction What must an airport have for communication of FICONs? - ansInternal Communication System What are the four types of NOTAMs? - ans1. D NOTAM
- FDC NOTAM (effects air traffic)
- Special Data or Pointer NOTAM (FTR)
- Military NOTAM During construction what must be marked and lighted? - ansUnserviceable areas adjacent to any movement area How many hijackings and bombings have occurred throughout the world since the beginning of aviation? - ans700+ hijackings 100 bombings Why was the TSA created? - ansBecause of 9/11; created November 19, 2001 by The Aviation Security and Transportation Act of 2001 What other programs did teh Aviation Security and Transportation Act (ASTA) create? - ansBrought back Federal Air Marshals; Airport perimeter security and access control; Establishment of pilot projects; 100% screening of checked bags (Dec 2002); Screening Partnership Program What is the Screening Partnership Program? - ansairports have the option to opt-out of their TSA screeners, but TSA will then select the replacing private screening company, manage the contract, supervise and manage personnel, and monitor activities What are two ways that reduce wait time at airports? - ansPreCheck and Known Crewmembers Transportation Security Officer (TSOs) - ansconduct screening of passengers, carry-on and checked baggage; conduct travel document checks and serve as behavior detection officers Behavior Detection Officers (BDOs) - ansuse non-intrusive, behavior observation and analysis techniques to identify potentially high risk passengers Expert Transportation Security Officer/Bomb Appraisal Officer - ansProvides guidance to Federal Security Director on issues involving explosives, improvised explosive devices (IEDs) and chemical, biological, radiological and nuclear threats. What is the Playbook? - ansBased on using random antiterrorism measures, such as random checks of personnel operating in the cargo areas of an airport or other location and putting on a display of force with Federal Air Marshals, TSOs and K9s (Random Checks) Title 49 CFR Part 1542 - ansAirport Security; rolls and responsibilities of Airport Security Coordinator, access control systems, personnel identification systems, contingency planning and incident response Title 49 CFR Part 1544 - ansDomestic Aircraft Operator Security; procedures for law enforcement officers flying armed prisoner transport, flight crew security training and overall protection of aircraft Investigative and Enforcement Procedures (Part) - ans1503; investigations conducted by TSA for violating security regs; Persons can voluntarily disclose if they believe they have violated any terms - lesser penalties Protection of Sensitive Security Information (Part) - ans1520; Airport and Aircraft operators cannot release SSI information without approval of TSA
1 - 4: Unleashing Potential in Airport Innovation.
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Exclusive Area Agreement - ansAircraft operator has security program that assumes responsibility for certain security measures; must be approved by TSA and amendment in ASP Airport Tenant Security Program - ansSimilar to EAA but applies to tenants (FBOs) Is an individual disqualified for a SIDA badge if there was no disposition, guilty/not guilty because of insanity? - ansNo Can an airport issue temporary access to an individual? - ansYes, up to the Security Director How long are records of law enforcement action kept? - ans180 days How long are CHRC/STA records kept after termination of individual? - ans180 days and then distroyed How many law enforcement must an airport have? - ansEnough personnel to respond to contingencies and incidents, respond to screening checkpoints respond to incident in support of civil aviation security programs What are the requirements for a law enforcement officer? - ansHave arrest authority; identifiable; armed; completed a training program; trained int eh use of firearms, courteous and efficient treatment of persons subject to inspection, detention, search, arrest; trained in responsibilities under ASP Security Officers - ansunarmed security guards; airpot may use to provide perimeter security, staff vehicle entry gates, patrol airfield to enforce ASP, respond to computer alarms The AEP is a public document, what does this mean? - ansASP is SSI - anything SSI in the AEP should refer you to the ASP What are the steps of a threat? - ans1. Evaluate Threat 2. Initiate Appropriate Actions 3. Immediately Notify TSA GA accounts for how many flights in the US? - ans77% Is GA security regulated? - ansNo, TSA has gone with a guidance approach Explain GA security - ansGA Hotline - centralized reporting system for suspicious activity on airfield; AOPA Airport Watch Program enlists GA pilots to watch for and report suspicious activity that might have security implications What is the recommended publication for GA security and what does it cover? - ansInformation Publication A-001; Security Guidelines for GA Airports 2004 Personnel; Aircraft; Airport/Facilities; Surveillance; Security Procedures; Communications and Specialty Operations Aircraft Operator Security Coordinator - ansAircraft Operator for airline that is the primary point of contact for TSA Ground Security Coordinator - ansmanages security functions for each passenger and cargo flight What are the 5 types of Aircraft Operator Security Programs? - ans1. Full 2. Partial 3. All- Cargo 4. Private Charger 5. 12- 5 FULL Aircraft Operator Security Program - ansscheduled 61+/less 60 operating from/to Sterile Area screen passengers, baggage, cargo, designate an AOSC conduct fingerprint, carry Federal Air Marshals, restrict access to flight deck, respond to SDs and contingency and incident management plan PARTIAL Aircraft Operator Security Program - ansscheduled 31-60 not in Sterile Area/less 60 not in Sterile area (AK) do not require screening of persons/property; airpots may require screening of passengers when they land
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ALL-CARGO Aircraft Operator Security Program - ansaircraft that carry all cargo, max take- off weight 45,500kg additional security restrictions placed on cargo in 2006 PRIVATE CHARGER Aircraft Operator Security Program - ansNon TSA screeners who have completed approved TSA screening training 12 - 5 Aircraft Operator Security Program - anssecurity program for charter air carriers with max takeoff weight more than 12,500 pds - passenger or cargo or both Can foreign air carriers access SSI materials? - ansNo, not unless authorized by TSA Known Shipper - ansindividual or company that is registered with TSA, and has regular history of shipping with air carriers What 3 types of companies ship commercial aircraft? - ans1. US Postal Service
- Direct Shippers: manufacture products and use commercial air to get to distribution point
- Freight Forwarders: business shipping of goods; contacted by other companies to move good via air, ship, truck or rail Certified Cargo Screening Program - ansVoluntary Program; cargo has been screened before flight - regulate by TSA very rigorous security standards How is safety oversight defined? - ansthose means and activities by which airport management ensures effective implementation of safety-related standards and procedures Why does an airport need a Safety Management System? - ansto increase the likelihood that airport operators will detect and correct safety problems before those problems result in an aircraft incident. In November 2005, the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) required what? - ansRequired certificated international airports to establish an SMS What are the four pillars of the Safety Management System? - anspolicy/objectives, risk management, assurance, and promotion What are four key elements of airport safety policy and objectives? - ansSafety program methods, processes, authorities and accountability What are the five phases of the safety risk management process? - ansPhase 1: describe the system; Phase 2: identify the hazard; Phase 3: determine the risk; Phase 4: assess and analyze the risk; Phase 5: treat the risk What four items enhance an airport's ability to identify hazards? - ansoperational expertise; training in hazard analysis techniques; use of a hazard analysis tool; documenting the process What are four risk mitigation strategies? - ansavoidance (stop or shift the operation), assumption (accepting the risk), control (minimize or eliminate the risk), transfer (shift risk to another area) What are four types of risks taken by airport operators? - ansInformed, uninformed, benefit- driven, pointless What does safety assurance include? - ansauditing and oversight What does safety promotion involve? - anstraining, education, communication and continuous improvement What are a few communication methods that may be effective for a safety program? - ansseminars, bulletins or notices, lessons-learned, and cross-tell What airports must comply with Part 139? - ansairports serving scheduled air carrier aircraft designed for more than 9 passenger seats and unscheduled air carrier aircraft designed for at least 31 passenger seats, to include joint or shared use airports What airports are not subject to Part 139? - ansserving passenger carrier operations solely as an alternate airport; those operated by the U.S.; airports in AK that only serve scheduled
1 - 4: Unleashing Potential in Airport Innovation.
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What 3 things help "chain of event" links from forming? - ans1. Proper design of component system
- Safeguards put into place
- Correct safety decisions and actions What is Safety Management Systems (SMS)? - anssystem that helps to manage safety risk through systematic procedures, practices and policies What does SMS help establish? - ansImprove communication and minimize risk Is Part 139 required for GA airports? - ansNo, only commercial but some GA airports apply for a Part 139 certificate Who does the FAA issue operating certificates to? - ans1. Serve schedule and unscheduled air carrier aircraft with more than 30 seats
- Serve scheduled air carrier aircraft with more than 9 but less than 31 seats When does the FAA issue an Airport Operating Certificate? - ansAfter developing an Airport Certification Manual that has been approved by the FAA What does the ACM provide? - ansAll necessary information on how to comply with Part 139 What inspection records are kept for 12 months? - ansAirfield Self-Inspection; NOTAMs; Fueling Inspections and accident/incident reports What records are kept for 24 months? - ansMovement area training and individuals trained as self-inspectors How often is Movement Area training? - ansEvery 12 months If pavement failure occurs because the air1port allowed aircraft operations that exceed the pavement limitations, can federal funding be used to restore the pavement? - ansNo Inspection elements of pavement - ans1. Pavement Edges
- Surface deterioration/hazards to aircraft
- Vegetation Growth
- Cracks, holes, variation Airport Pavement Management Systems (APMS) - anssystematic and consistent procedure for scheduling maintenance and rehabilitation based on max benefits and min cost; evaluates present condition and forecasts future condition Are DEC and CFME eligible for AIP funds? - ansYes Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) - ansenhance taxiing capabilities in low vis concerns and reduce potential for runway incursions When is a SMGCS plan required? - ansScheduled air carrier operations in visibility less than 1200 RVR Snow and Ice Control Plan - ansAddresses Pre and Post winter subjects to prepare airport for winter season; addresses instructions and procedures that should be taken by airport when dealing with winter storms When is a runway incursion most likely to occur? - ansPoor communication; Loss of Situational Awareness; Poor Vis; Fatigue; External Pressures What are the three types of airport fire rescue designs? - ans1. Airport staff: train and operate own ARFF
- Contractual provider or local city firefighting unit
- Combine police and fire fighting duties Who must be notified if any hazardous substance has been released into bodies of water? - ansNational Response Center
1 - 4: Unleashing Potential in Airport Innovation.
A Comprehensive Exam Study Guide Latest Updated
What act required material safety data sheets (MSDS) to be available and posted in all workplaces where hazardous material exists? - ansSARA What does the AEP include? - ans1. Procedures for prompt response to all emergencies
- Provide adequate guidance to each person who must implement the procedures
- Provide emergency response for the largest air carrier aircraft in its Index Group What does the AEP address? - ansemergencies within the authority and responsibility to respond; May represent threat to airport because of proximity; airport has responsibilities under local/regional emergency plans and mutual aid agreements Memorandums of Understanding (MOUs)/Memorandums of Agreement (MOA) - ansrelationship between on-airport emergency services and other mutual aid entities What are the four related actions to Comprehensive Emergency Management? - ansMitigation; Preparedness: Response; Recovery What are the 4 steps to developing an AEP? - ans1. Planning Team
- Review other applicable regs, standards and guidance
- Hazard/Risk Analysis
- Develop procedures What instructions are required in an AEP? - ansbomb incidents and sabotage, hijacking and other unlawful interference with aircraft operations What is the primary purpose of the AEP? - ansDelegation of authority; Assignment of responsibilities; Coordination of efforts by responding personnel; Orderly transition between normal and emergency operations Funcitonal Annexes - ansplans organized around the performance of broad tasks or wide- scale operations; does not repeat the info of the Basic Plan of the AEP Sections of the AEP - ans1. Basic Plan
- Functional Annexes
- Hazard Specific Section
- SOPs and Checklists NTSB - ansFederal org responsible for investigating and determining accident causes, making safety recommendations and reporting the facts and circumstances involved in all US civil aviation accidents Who has the authority to remove aircraft after an accident? - ansNTSB; no wreckage to be removed or disturbed until it is released by the NTSB If there is an accident off airport property, who is responsible for preserving the accident? - ansLocal Jurisdiction What must an airport have for communication of FICONs? - ansInternal Communication System What are the four types of NOTAMs? - ans1. D NOTAM
- FDC NOTAM (effects air traffic)
- Special Data or Pointer NOTAM (FTR)
- Military NOTAM During construction what must be marked and lighted? - ansUnserviceable areas adjacent to any movement area How many hijackings and bombings have occurred throughout the world since the beginning of aviation? - ans700+ hijackings 100 bombings Why was the TSA created? - ansBecause of 9/11; created November 19, 2001 by The Aviation Security and Transportation Act of 2001
1 - 4: Unleashing Potential in Airport Innovation.
A Comprehensive Exam Study Guide Latest Updated
Can the TSA change an individual airport category as it relates to security measures? - ansYes, they can also require a customized ASP Who issues Information Circulars? - ansTSA to inform Airport Ops of security concerns When are Security Directives issued? - ansBy TSA if further measures than IC needed; SSI information What does a SD require? - ansAirport must acknowledge the receipt of the SD (time and how they will comply) and the ASP must accommodate changing conditions If an airport operator discovers a change in condition that doesn't provide the level of security defined in the ASP, what must they do? - ansNotify TSA within 6 hours and get verbal approval of interim measures to be maintained What must be done if a procedure change will last less than 60 days and what must be done for a procedure change that will last more than 60 days? - ans1. written notification to TSA within 72 hours of change
- propose an amendment to ASP within 30 days of change What must the airport operator do in a secured area? - ansprevent and detect unauthorized entry; access control system must allow or deny access and distinguish personnel; Post signs of the perimeter of Secured Area; Address identification of ground vehicles What are the 3 requirements for a person to obtain a SIDA badge? - ansSecurity Training; Background Check; Identification display/challenge If an individual only has access to the AOA, must they pass a criminal history background check? - ansNo; but tenants required to undergo a Security Threat Assessment - not required to wear airport approved identification What is the most common airport computerized access control system? - ansAccess Control and Alarm Monitoring System (ACAMS) What are the requirements for ACAMS? - ansmonitor access to secure and sterile areas, record and log events; Verify access to card holder; ACAMs does not have to monitor all access points to the airport (keys may be used); Access AOA - not required; Automatically log attempts to enter secure and sterile areas; operate non-stop Exclusive Area Agreement - ansAircraft operator has security program that assumes responsibility for certain security measures; must be approved by TSA and amendment in ASP Airport Tenant Security Program - ansSimilar to EAA but applies to tenants (FBOs) Is an individual disqualified for a SIDA badge if there was no disposition, guilty/not guilty because of insanity? - ansNo Can an airport issue temporary access to an individual? - ansYes, up to the Security Director How long are records of law enforcement action kept? - ans180 days How long are CHRC/STA records kept after termination of individual? - ans180 days and then distroyed How many law enforcement must an airport have? - ansEnough personnel to respond to contingencies and incidents, respond to screening checkpoints respond to incident in support of civil aviation security programs What are the requirements for a law enforcement officer? - ansHave arrest authority; identifiable; armed; completed a training program; trained int eh use of firearms, courteous and efficient treatment of persons subject to inspection, detention, search, arrest; trained in responsibilities under ASP Security Officers - ansunarmed security guards; airpot may use to provide perimeter security, staff vehicle entry gates, patrol airfield to enforce ASP, respond to computer alarms
1 - 4: Unleashing Potential in Airport Innovation.
A Comprehensive Exam Study Guide Latest Updated
The AEP is a public document, what does this mean? - ansASP is SSI - anything SSI in the AEP should refer you to the ASP What are the steps of a threat? - ans1. Evaluate Threat 2. Initiate Appropriate Actions 3. Immediately Notify TSA GA accounts for how many flights in the US? - ans77% Is GA security regulated? - ansNo, TSA has gone with a guidance approach Explain GA security - ansGA Hotline - centralized reporting system for suspicious activity on airfield; AOPA Airport Watch Program enlists GA pilots to watch for and report suspicious activity that might have security implications What is the recommended publication for GA security and what does it cover? - ansInformation Publication A-001; Security Guidelines for GA Airports 2004 Personnel; Aircraft; Airport/Facilities; Surveillance; Security Procedures; Communications and Specialty Operations Aircraft Operator Security Coordinator - ansAircraft Operator for airline that is the primary point of contact for TSA Ground Security Coordinator - ansmanages security functions for each passenger and cargo flight What are the 5 types of Aircraft Operator Security Programs? - ans1. Full 2. Partial 3. All- Cargo 4. Private Charger 5. 12- 5 FULL Aircraft Operator Security Program - ansscheduled 61+/less 60 operating from/to Sterile Area screen passengers, baggage, cargo, designate an AOSC conduct fingerprint, carry Federal Air Marshals, restrict access to flight deck, respond to SDs and contingency and incident management plan PARTIAL Aircraft Operator Security Program - ansscheduled 31-60 not in Sterile Area/less 60 not in Sterile area (AK) do not require screening of persons/property; airpots may require screening of passengers when they land ALL-CARGO Aircraft Operator Security Program - ansaircraft that carry all cargo, max take- off weight 45,500kg additional security restrictions placed on cargo in 2006 PRIVATE CHARGER Aircraft Operator Security Program - ansNon TSA screeners who have completed approved TSA screening training 12 - 5 Aircraft Operator Security Program - anssecurity program for charter air carriers with max takeoff weight more than 12,500 pds - passenger or cargo or both Can foreign air carriers access SSI materials? - ansNo, not unless authorized by TSA Known Shipper - ansindividual or company that is registered with TSA, and has regular history of shipping with air carriers What 3 types of companies ship commercial aircraft? - ans1. US Postal Service
- Direct Shippers: manufacture products and use commercial air to get to distribution point
- Freight Forwarders: business shipping of goods; contacted by other companies to move good via air, ship, truck or rail Certified Cargo Screening Program - ansVoluntary Program; cargo has been screened before flight - regulate by TSA very rigorous security standards CATI DH and visibility/RVR - ansDH: 200ft; Vis: 1/2 mile, 1800ft RVR with centerline and TDX lights CATII DH and RVR - ansDH: 100ft; RVR: 1,200ft
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What is NIMS? - ansNational Incident Management System: a comprehensive approach for managing emergencies. It standardizes organizational structures; Incident Command System. The IC facilitates activities in what five areas? - ans1. Command 2. Operations 3. Planning 4. Logistics 5. Finance and Administration When was OSHA created and what was the Act? - ansOccupational Safety and Health Act was signed in 1970 which created the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. What is the ratio of the Transitional Surface? - ans7: What is the ratio of the Conical Surface? - ans20: What are some ways the airport controls access to movement areas? - ansFencing, access gates, guards, magnetic card activated locks, physical barriers What does a Letter of Agreement (LOA) outline? (7) - ansduties and responsibilities for each operator, hours of operations, emergency notification responsibilities, authroized vehicles, types of communication equipment, call signs, where ATC clearance is required. What are the common holding fixes for aircraft's whom are unable to land due to inclement weather? - ansNon-directional Beacon (NDB) and Very High Frequency (VHF) Omni Directional Range (VOR) What is the greatest technological need to improve capacity and reduce delay's at airports? - ansdevelopment of technology that will improve the detection and prediction of atmospheric affects What are the two phenomenons that affect aircraft operations? - answake vortices and wind shear; greatest vortex potential exists when aircraft is heavy, clean and slow Standards for wake vortex separation are variable among what? - ansOperational safety, uniformity of traffic flow, efficiency of runway use, weather conditions and aircraft classification. As far as wake turbulence separation, what constitutes a small, large and heavy aircraft? - ans1. Small: <41,000 Medium: 41,000 - 225,000 Heavy: >225, How is an object defined? - ansany natural growth, terrain, permanent/temporary construction, including equipment, stockpiled material, buildings and vehicles What does NPIAS stand for? - ansThe National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems What is ARC? - ansAirport Reference Code, a coding system used to relate airport design criteria to the operational and physical characteristics of the airplanes intended to operate at the airport. What are the two components related to ARC? - ans1. Aircraft Approach Category
- Airplane Design Group What are the maximum crosswind components for airports with the ARC of A-I, B-II, C-I, D- VI? - ansA-I: 10.5 B-II: 13 C-I: 16 D-VI: 20 What is a joint-use airport? - ansOwned by the US that leases a portion of the airport to be used for Part 139 operations What is a shared-use airport? - ansUS owned airport that is co-located with a Part 139 airport (shared by both parties) Class I, II, and III airports have the same required elements within their ACM. What elements is a Class IV NOT responsible for in their ACM? (7) - ansProcedures for avoidance/failure of NAVAIDs during construction work; Snow and Ice Control Plan; Procedures for controlling pedestrians and ground vehicles in movement/safety areas; Procedures for protecting NAVAIDs; A description of public protection; Procedures for wildlife hazard management; Procedures for identifying, marking and lighting construction and other unserviceable areas Each section of the ACM should answer what? - ansWHO is going to perform the task
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WHAT do the tasks consist of HOW are they to be performed WHEN should they occur Describe Gap Analysis. - ansa tool in the SMS that helps assess an airports initial safety program and helps determine the organizations short-comings underneath the SMS requirements. What are the two terms used to describe symptoms of exposure? - ansAcute (effects appear immediately) or Chronic (effects develop over time) What is NIMS? - ansNational Incident Management System; it is developed to provide a comprehensive approach for managing emergencies What are the five major functional areas the ICS normally facilitates? - ans1. Command
- Operations
- Planning
- Logistics
- Finance and Administration What are the tasks of ARFF, Airport security, On-site Medical Service Personnel and Airport OPs during an emergency? - ansARFF: create an exit route Airport security: controls access to emergency site, establishes traffic control, preserve materials such as cargo and personal property On-site medical: screen and treat victims Airport Ops: notify mutual aid, interact with media and coordinate with air carriers/GA. Issue NOTAMs and provide backup response What are the approved solid compounds used for anti-icing and deicing purposes? - ansAirside urea, sodium formate and sodium acetate What is Eutectic Temperature, Eutectic Composition, and Eutectic Point? - ansEutectic Temp: lowest temperature that a chemical will melt ice Eutectic Composition: amount of chemical needed to do so Eutectic Point: the collective measurement between the two 4 methods ice will form - ans1. Radiation cooling
- Freezing of cold rain
- Freeze-thaw of compacted snow
- Freezing of standing or melting water What Federal Act requires anyone who releases a reportable quantity of a hazardous substance, to include slow releases over a 24-hour period, to immediately notify the National Response Center? - ansThe Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) What Federal Act requires the development of emergency response plans that address fuel spills and exposures to hazardous waste? - ansThe Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA) What is a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)? - ansA technical bulletin that describes how to use, handle, and dispose of specific chemical hazards What Federal Act(s) require MSDS be available and posted in all workplaces where hazardous materials exist? - ansThe Emergency Planning Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA) and the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
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What four responses could EPA take with regards to an environmental violation? - ansinformal response; formal administrative response; civil judicial response; criminal judicial response What four categories of criminal penalties can result from an environmental violation? - ansnegligent violation; knowing violation; knowing endangerment; false statements What four components make up a FOD management program? - ansprevention; detection; removal; evaluation What are the four wildlife control strategies? - ans1. aircraft flight schedule modification
- habitat modification
- harassment
- wildlife removal Almost three-quarters of all strikes occur at or below what AGL? - ans500ft How far from the airport should operations personnel monitor bird activity? - ans5 miles What two factors determine an airport's ARFF index? - anslength of the most demanding aircraft serving the airport and number of average daily departures What is the minimum ARFF index level for a certificated airport? - ansIndex A How many average daily departures of the longest aircraft determine an airport's ARFF index? - ans5 ; if less than 5, then the index below the longest aircraft serving the airport applies How does a fire extinguishing agent put out a fire? - ansprevents oxygen from mixing with the hydrocarbons, suppresses the release of fuel vapors, separates the combustible materials, and lowers the temperature of the fire What is the most common extinguishing agent on airfields? - ansAFFF (Aqueous Film Forming Foam) When must ARFF equipment be available at an airport? - ans15 minutes before to 15 minutes after an air carrier operation If a piece of ARFF equipment needs repair or maintenance, how long may FAA allow to restore the proper index? - ans48 hours, with FAA concurrence What if a certificated airport cannot maintain ARFF Index A capability? - ansair carrier operations must be suspended How quickly must ARFF respond to an emergency? - ansOne ARFF vehicle with all personnel in full protective gear must be able to release extinguishing agents at the midpoint of the furthest runway within three minutes of the alarm sounding; all other vehicles and personnel must arrive within 4 minutes How long must training records for ARFF personnel be kept? - ans24 months How often must ARFF personnel receive recurrent training? - ansevery 12 consecutive months to include one live-fire drill How often is the Airport Emergency Plan updated? - ansevery 12 months What provides a unified national response to disasters and emergencies? - ansNational Response Framework What does the National Response Framework build upon and what does it describe? - ansBuilds upon National Incident Management System (NIMS); describes how communities, tribes, states, fed gov, private sectors and nongov partners work together to coordinate national response and describes specific authorities and best practices for managing incidents How often must Class I certificated airports perform a full-scale emergency plan exercise? - ansonce every three years; intervening years there must be a tabletop exercise
1 - 4: Unleashing Potential in Airport Innovation.
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What are the four phases of disaster preparedness? - ansMitigation (actions that can prevent) Preparedness (enhance emergency response capabilities) Response (time-sensitive; four phases) Recovery (return to normal ops) What are the phases of Response in the disaster preparedness? - ansdiscovery; verification; response; resolution; What should the airport operator do immediately in the event of an accident or significant incident that impacts airport operations and safety? - ansClose the airport immediately What alert level involves a precautionary approach that would not normally cause serious difficulty or make the landing unsafe? - ansAlert I What alert level involves an aircraft emergency that may result in injuries and aircraft damage? - ansAlert II What alert level involves an actual aircraft accident? - ansAlert III What are the five types of exercises? - ansorientation seminar; drill; tabletop exercise; functional exercise; full-scale exercise At other than Class I airports, what are the exercise requirements? - ansAnnual tabletop exercises When may NTSB delegate an accident investigation to FAA? - ansFor aircraft weighing less than 12,500lbs What plan should airports have if experiencing 6 inches or more of snow annually? - anssnow and ice control plan (SICP) When experiencing snow and ice conditions, what runway condition is the standard that FAA requires? - ansno worse than wet condition When should snow and ice clearing operations commence? - ansbefore accumulation is 1/ inch for wet snow and 1 inch for dry snow What are snow clearance times based on? - ansremoving one inch of snow weighing up to 25lbs per cubic foot from the primary runway What is the term for a chemical or liquid used on water or snow to lower the point at which the mixture will freeze? - ansfreezing point depressant What is the limit of freezing point depression? - ansthe lowest temperature (eutectic temperature) an amount of chemical (eutectic composition) will melt ice; i.e. the eutectic point What is the green liquid used on aircraft during ice and snow operations? - ansType IV anti- icing solution; typically ethylene glycol thickened with a polymer; used after de-icing the aircraft surfaces What type of anti-icing are there? - ansType II (white or yellowish in color) Type III (no color determined) Type IV (green in color) What is the orange liquid used on aircraft during ice and snow operations? - ansType I de- icing fluid; typically propylene glycol heated to 180F; provides about 15 minutes of protection in snow conditions and 3-5 minutes for freezing rain What is the one-step and two-step procedure for deicing/anti-icing? - ansone-step: remove and protect surface from refreezing two-step: after deicing, over spray of anti-icing fluid Is Type IV considered hazardous by EPA? - ansConsidered hazardous. Type IV has a higher toxicity than type I. Type I is considered harmless by EPA How many airports are in the NPIAS and what three types are included? - ans3,380 airports;
- commercial service, 2) reliever, 3) select GA
