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WEST COAST EMT BLOCK TEST BANK
1. A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. start CPR and transport immediately. B. begin CPR until an AED is available. C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated. D. determine if he has a valid living will. 2. Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: Select one: A. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency. B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. C. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and ad- vanced airway management. D. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physi- cians, and emergency nurses. 3. Between each chest compression, you should . Select one: A. check for a pulse B. allow full chest recoil C. administer a breath D. remove your hands from the chest 4. Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a fractured sternum. B. gastric distention. C. rib fractures. D. liver laceration.
WEST COAST EMT BLOCK TEST BANK
WEST COAST EMT BLOCK TEST BANK
c. in patients who are intubated. d. when the airway is completely obstructed. e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.
10. If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should. Select one: A. leave it in place B. continue chest compressions C. remove it D. place the patient on his or her side 11. In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: Select one: A. a cardiac dysrhythmia. B. severe chest trauma. C. respiratory arrest. D. a drug overdose. 12. Several attempts to adequately open a trauma pa- tient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should: Select one: A. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin. B. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver. C. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient's neck. D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. 13. Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. grasping the throat. B. acute cyanosis. C. inability to speak. D. forceful coughing. C. remove it 14.14.
WEST COAST EMT BLOCK TEST BANK
The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompres- sion CPR by: Select one: A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs
WEST COAST EMT BLOCK TEST BANK
A. give two breaths and prepare to start compres- sions. B. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations. C. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds. D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.
18. Without practice, your CPR skills will. Select one: A. become part of your muscle memory B. improve over time C. come back automatically when needed D. deteriorate over time 19. Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway ob- struction. You should: Select one: A. place the patient supine. B. encourage the patient to cough. C. administer back blows. D. perform abdominal thrusts.
- Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a mid- dle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should: Select one: A. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads. B. apply the AED remove the medication patch, wipe away any med- ication residue, and apply the AED pads. C. pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns. D. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch. 21. Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tu- berculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates
WEST COAST EMT BLOCK TEST BANK
that: Select one: A. the disease is dormant in your body, but will prob- ably never cause symptoms. B. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately. C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. D. you contracted the disease by casual contact in- stead of exposure to secretions.
22. After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to: Select one: A. contact medical control. B. notify law enforcement. C. quickly access the patient. D. take standard precautions. 23. An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. any disease that enters the body via the blood- stream and renders the immune system nonfunction- al. B. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs. C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. D. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. 24. Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the . Select one: A. nature of illness B. field diagnosis C. associated symptoms D. medical history 25.25.
WEST COAST EMT BLOCK TEST BANK
B. respiratory C. cardiac D. neurologic
29. Most patients with an infectious disease will have . Select one: A. a low blood glucose level B. abdominal pain C. seizures D. a fever 30. Most treatments provided in the prehospital setting are intended to. Select one: A. reduce the need for transport to the hospital B. confirm the patient's diagnosis C. address the patient's symptoms D. correct the patient's underlying problem 31. The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to: Select one: A. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients. B. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad. C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and per- tussis. D. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient. 32. The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made: Select one: A. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint. B. after the primary assessment has been completed. C. upon completion of a detailed secondary assess-
WEST COAST EMT BLOCK TEST BANK
ment. D. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known.
33. When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem? Select one: A. Baseline vital signs B. Index of suspicion C. Medical history D. Primary assessment 34. When caring for a patient with an altered mental sta- tus and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: Select one: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to possible. transporting the patient. B. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away. C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible. D. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital. 35. When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms. B. it is during the general impression that assess- ment of the ABCs occurs. C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first. D. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured. 36. Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition? Select one:
The car drove off the road and struck a telephone pole. The patient remains unconscious, and physical assessment reveals only a large hematoma on his right forehead with no other physical signs. Your pa- tient is a diabetic who had been under a lot of stress lately and may have missed meals. This is an example of a: Select one: A. combination of a psychiatric and trauma emer- gency. B. medical emergency. C. trauma emergency. D. combination of a medical and trauma emergency.
41. "PASTE" is an alternate assessment tool for . Select one: A. respiratory patients B. seizure patients C. stroke patients D. cardiac patients 42. A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no med- ications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is: Select one: A. epinephrine. B. a beta-antagonist. C. albuterol. D. an antihistamine. 43. A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema com- plains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleu- ritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your as-
sessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycar- dia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? Select one: A. Spontaneous pneumothorax B. Exacerbation of his COPD C. Acute pulmonary embolism D. Rupture of the diaphragm
44. A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. fluid accumulation outside the lung. B. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli. C. a unilaterally collapsed lung. D. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue. 45. Asthma is caused by a response of the: Select one: A. immune system. B. cardiovascular system. C. endocrine system. D. respiratory system. 46. Crackles (rales) are caused by. Select one: A. severe bronchoconstriction B. mucus in the larger airways C. narrowing of the upper airways D. air passing through fluid 47. His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expira- tory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely
When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respi- ratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: Select one: A. abnormal breath sounds. B. diminished breath sounds. C. normal breath sounds. D. an absence of breath sounds.
52. Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia? Select one: A. Pleural effusion B. Severe anxiety C. Pulmonary edema D. Narcotic overdose 53. Which of the following is a genetic disorder that pre- disposes the patient to repeated lung infections? Select one: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Severe acute respiratory syndrome C. Cystic fibrosis D. Celiac sprue 54. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of ad- equate breathing? Select one: A. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breath- ing and cyanosis B. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin 55. Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient? Select one:
A. Orthostatic vital signs B. Lung sounds C. Blood glucose levels D. Distal pulse, motor, sensation
56. While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? Select one: A. Aspiration pneumonia B. Widespread atelectasis C. Early pulmonary edema D. Acute asthma attack 57. You are assisting an asthma patient with his pre- scribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should: Select one: A. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medica- tion absorption. B. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxy- gen saturation. C. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can. D. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and re- assess his condition. 58. You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. bacterial infection of the epiglottis.
140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and ir- regular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: Select one: A. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her sys- tolic blood pressure. B. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further. C. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical con- trol for advice. D. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once.
63. A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: Select one: A. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. B. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding. C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. D. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. 64. A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should: Select one: A. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate. B. remove the battery from the monitor and then re- move the vest. C. leave the battery attached to the monitor and re- move the vest. D. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place. 65. A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular as- sist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced? Select one:
A. Thoracic aortic aneurysm B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Uncontrolled hypertension D. Obstructive lung disease
66. A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experi- ences chest pain during exertion because: Select one: A. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial nar- rowing. B. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis sec- ondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen. C. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow. D. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow. 67. After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should: Select one: A. transport the patient at once. B. assess for a carotid pulse. C. immediately resume CPR. D. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm. 68. Angina pectoris occurs when: Select one: A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply. B. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. C. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand. D. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. 69. Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the: Select one: A. left ventricle. B. right atrium. C. right ventricle. D. left atrium. 70.70.
