Download VTU INTERNSHIP CLOUD APPLICATION DEVELOPER HANDBOOK EXPECTED MCQS and more Quizzes Engineering in PDF only on Docsity!
Cloud Application Developer - Sample MCQs (Generated from Handbook)
Unit 1: Basics of Cloud Computing and Regulatory Standards
1. Which of the following best describes cloud computing? a) Owning and maintaining physical servers for data storage. b) Renting computer resources over the internet on demand. c) Developing software exclusively for on-premises infrastructure. d) Managing and securing local area networks. Correct Answer: b) 2. What is a key characteristic of cloud computing that allows resources to be scaled up or down rapidly based on demand? a) Resource Pooling b) Broad Network Access c) Rapid Elasticity d) Measured Service Correct Answer: c) 3. Which cloud deployment model is exclusive to a single organization, providing enhanced security and control? a) Public Cloud b) Community Cloud c) Hybrid Cloud d) Private Cloud Correct Answer: d) 4. In the context of cloud service models, which of the following provides virtualized computing resources over the internet, giving users the most control? a) SaaS (Software as a Service) b) PaaS (Platform as a Service) c) IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) d) FaaS (Function as a Service) Correct Answer: c) 5. Which of the following is NOT considered an essential characteristic of cloud computing? a) On-demand self-service b) Rapid elasticity c) Single tenancy d) Broad network access Correct Answer: c)
6. What is the primary focus of regulatory standards in cloud computing? a) Optimizing cloud infrastructure costs. b) Ensuring data protection, privacy, and security. c) Improving application performance in the cloud. d) Promoting innovation in cloud services. Correct Answer: b) 7. Which regulation is specifically designed to protect the personal data of individuals within the European Union (EU)? a) PCI DSS b) HIPAA c) GDPR d) ISO/IEC 27001 Correct Answer: c) 8. What is the first step in creating a cloud account with a provider like AWS or Azure? a) Configuring security settings b) Visiting the cloud provider's website c) Defining resource groups d) Setting up billing alerts Correct Answer: b) 9. A Cloud Application Developer's role primarily involves: a) Managing physical servers in a data center. b) Designing, developing, and maintaining applications in cloud environments. c) Troubleshooting network connectivity issues. d) Providing end-user support for cloud services. Correct Answer: b) 10. Which of the following is a key responsibility of a Cloud Application Developer regarding security? a) Managing physical security of data centers. b) Implementing and managing CI/CD pipelines. c) Integrating and implementing security controls for applications and data in the cloud. d) Optimizing cloud infrastructure costs. Correct Answer: c)
c) To manage large databases. d) To design user interfaces. Correct Answer: b)
17. Visual Studio Code with Azure Extension is an example of a popular: a) Containerization Tool b) Configuration Management Tool c) Integrated Development Environment (IDE) d) Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) Platform Correct Answer: c) 18. Which phase of software development is primarily addressed by tools like Maven and Gradle? a) Debugging b) Testing c) Building Programs d) Monitoring Correct Answer: c) 19. In cloud computing, what does "tuning performance" typically involve? a) Securing the application from threats. b) Optimizing code to reduce errors. c) Employing profiling and performance tuning tools to identify and optimize bottlenecks. d) Automating deployment processes. Correct Answer: c) 20. Git is primarily used in cloud development for: a) Database management b) Version control and collaborative software development c) Cloud infrastructure provisioning d) Application performance monitoring Correct Answer: b)
Unit 3: Application Requirements
21. What is the first step in defining application requirements? a) Designing the user interface b) Writing code c) Gathering user feedback and requirements d) Setting up the database Correct Answer: c) 22. Which type of requirement specifies the criteria related to performance, reliability, security, and usability of an application? a) Functional Requirements b) Non-functional Requirements c) Business Requirements d) Technical Requirements Correct Answer: b) 23. What does "scope definition" in application requirements primarily involve? a) Defining the budget for the project. b) Clearly defining the boundaries and objectives of the application. c) Identifying the development team members. d) Setting up the development environment. Correct Answer: b) 24. In impact analysis for application changes, what is the main goal? a) To estimate the project timeline. b) To assess how proposed changes may affect the existing system. c) To define user stories. d) To select the technology stack. Correct Answer: b) 25. Which aspect of application requirements focuses on how the application will look and feel to the user? a) Functional Requirements b) Non-functional Requirements c) Visual Properties d) Technical Specifications Correct Answer: c) 26. What does SLA stand for in the context of cloud services? a) Service Level Architecture b) System Load Analysis c) Service Level Agreement d) Software License Agreement
Unit 4: Application Architecture
31. What is the primary purpose of impact analysis in application architecture? a) To improve application performance. b) To assess the potential consequences of changes to the architecture. c) To define user stories for new features. d) To select the best cloud provider. Correct Answer: b) 32. What type of application architecture is designed and developed specifically for the cloud environment, leveraging cloud services and principles from the outset? a) Monolithic Application b) Cloud-First Application c) Cloud-Native Application d) Hybrid Application Correct Answer: c) 33. Which architectural style breaks down an application into small, independent, and modular services that communicate through APIs? a) Monolithic Architecture b) Client-Server Architecture c) Microservices Architecture d) Layered Architecture Correct Answer: c) 34. What does SOA stand for in cloud application architecture? a) Software-Oriented Application b) Service-Oriented Architecture c) Scalable Operating Architecture d) Security-Optimized Application Correct Answer: b) 35. In a serverless architecture, what triggers the execution of functions? a) Scheduled cron jobs b) User logins c) Events or requests d) Database queries Correct Answer: c) 36. What is the term for software that manages digital keys and certificates, combining asymmetric encryption and digital signatures to establish secure communication? a) IAM (Identity and Access Management) b) SSL/TLS
c) PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) d) VPN (Virtual Private Network) Correct Answer: c)
37. Which cloud service is used for object storage and content delivery through CDN in IBM Cloud, as mentioned in the handbook? a) IBM Cloud Kubernetes Service b) IBM Cloud Object Storage c) IBM Cloud Virtual Servers d) IBM Cloud Functions Correct Answer: b) 38. What is the purpose of Load Balancing in cloud application architecture? a) To secure the application from threats. b) To monitor application performance. c) To distribute incoming traffic evenly across multiple servers. d) To manage user authentication. Correct Answer: c) 39. Which of the following is NOT a key step in creating a disaster recovery plan for IT systems? a) Risk Assessment b) Performance Tuning c) Data Backup and Storage d) Recovery Team and Communication Plan Correct Answer: b) 40. Which of the following is a best practice for cloud application architecture to achieve scalability and resilience? a) Monolithic Architecture b) Tight Coupling of Components c) Scalable and Modular Architecture d) Ignoring Security Measures Correct Answer: c)
Correct Answer: c)
47. What is a key advantage of using NoSQL databases compared to SQL databases? a) Strong consistency and data integrity (ACID properties). b) Support for complex queries and transactions. c) Horizontal scalability and flexibility in handling unstructured data. d) Well-defined schemas and relationships between tables. Correct Answer: c) 48. What does IAM stand for in the context of cloud security? a) Information Access Management b) Infrastructure Access Management c) Identity and Access Management d) Internet Application Management Correct Answer: c) 49. Which security measure involves verifying the identity of users through credentials like passwords and biometrics? a) Authorization b) Encryption c) Authentication d) Data Validation Correct Answer: c) 50. What is the purpose of Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) in IAM? a) To encrypt sensitive data. b) To verify user identity through multi-factor authentication. c) To assign permissions based on users' roles within an organization. d) To monitor user activities and detect suspicious behavior. Correct Answer: c) .
Unit 6: Application Migration
51. What is the primary goal of cloud application migration? a) To reduce application features. b) To move applications, data, and IT processes from on-premises to cloud environments. c) To simplify application code. d) To increase application complexity. Correct Answer: b) 52. Which of the following is a key benefit of migrating applications to the cloud? a) Increased on-premises infrastructure costs. b) Reduced scalability and flexibility. c) Enhanced data security and scalability. d) Decreased reliability. Correct Answer: c) 53. Which cost component is directly related to moving large datasets to the cloud during migration? a) Licensing Costs b) Personnel Training c) Data Transfer Costs d) Infrastructure Costs Correct Answer: c) 54. What strategy helps minimize data transfer costs during cloud migration by reducing the size of data? a) Right-Sizing Resources b) Reserved Instances c) Data Compression and Deduplication d) Automated Scaling Correct Answer: c) 55. When considering application migration dependencies, which type of dependency focuses on ensuring seamless data transfer and access after migration? a) Infrastructure Dependencies b) Integration Dependencies c) Security Dependencies d) Data Dependencies Correct Answer: d) 56. What is the primary focus of "Rehost" migration strategy (Lift and Shift)? a) Re-architecting the application for cloud-native. b) Replacing the application with a SaaS solution. c) Redeveloping the application in a new language. d) Migrating the application to the cloud with minimal changes.
Unit 7: Software Packaging and Deployment
61. What is the main purpose of packaging application source code into deployment units? a) To simplify code development. b) To prepare software for deployment in a consistent and manageable format. c) To enhance application security. d) To optimize database performance. Correct Answer: b) 62. Which tool is a containerization platform that packages applications and their dependencies into isolated containers? a) Maven b) Ansible c) Docker d) Jenkins Correct Answer: c) 63. What file is used to specify the application's environment and dependencies when using Docker? a) pom.xml b) serverless.yml c) deployment.yaml d) Dockerfile Correct Answer: d) 64. What is the purpose of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) tools like Terraform or AWS CloudFormation for deploying source code? a) To manage application code versions. b) To automate application testing. c) To define and provision cloud infrastructure programmatically. d) To monitor application performance. Correct Answer: c) 65. Which tool is a command-line tool specifically for Kubernetes cluster management? a) Docker CLI b) AWS CLI c) kubectl d) Terraform CLI Correct Answer: c) 66. Which security configuration is essential to control user access during cloud deployment, ensuring only authorized users have access? a) Network Security b) Encryption c) Audit Logging d) Identity and Access Management (IAM)
Correct Answer: d)
67. What security protocol should be implemented to encrypt communication channels during code deployment to prevent eavesdropping? a) SSH b) HTTPS/SSL/TLS c) SFTP d) FTP Correct Answer: b) 68. What is the primary goal of "rolling deployment" strategy? a) To deploy the application in a single step with downtime. b) To gradually replace instances of the previous version with the new one, minimizing downtime. c) To maintain two identical environments. d) To expose the new version to a subset of users for testing. Correct Answer: b) 69. Which deployment strategy involves maintaining two identical environments and switching traffic between them seamlessly? a) Rolling Deployment b) Canary Deployment c) Blue-Green Deployment d) In-place Deployment Correct Answer: c) 70. What is the purpose of an operational checklist for cloud deployments? a) To automate the deployment process. b) To ensure all necessary steps are taken into account, reducing errors and enhancing reliability. c) To monitor application performance. d) To secure the deployment pipeline. Correct Answer: b) Unit 8: Performance Monitoring and Optimization 71. How is application performance directly related to business outcomes? a) It primarily affects the development team's efficiency. b) It directly impacts user satisfaction, operational efficiency, and overall business success. c) It only affects the technical aspects of the application. d) It has no significant impact on business results. Correct Answer: b) 72. Which KPI measures the time taken for a user interaction, API call, or database query to complete? a) Throughput
78. What is the benefit of "Reserved Instances" in cloud cost optimization? a) To dynamically adjust resources based on demand. b) To utilize spare cloud capacity at lower prices. c) To benefit from discounted rates for predictable workloads. d) To automatically scale resources. Correct Answer: c) 79. What is the purpose of "alerting mechanisms" in performance monitoring? a) To optimize code efficiency. b) To automate deployment processes. c) To notify relevant stakeholders if performance metrics breach predefined thresholds. d) To generate custom reports. Correct Answer: c) 80. Which of the following is NOT a typical step in analyzing performance through sample reports? a) Collect Relevant Reports b) Identify Performance Patterns c) Implement Auto-Scaling d) Analyze Resource Utilization Correct Answer: c) Unit 9: Inclusive and Environmentally Sustainable Workplaces 81. What is the equilibrium among the environment, equity, and economy referred to in the context of sustainable practices? a) Inclusion b) Diversity c) Sustainability d) Equality Correct Answer: c) 82. Which pillar of sustainability emphasizes the importance of economic activities that promote long-term prosperity without compromising future generations? a) Society b) Environment c) Economy d) Equity Correct Answer: c) 83. Which of the following is NOT a component of sustainable practices at the workplace related to energy efficiency? a) Adoption of energy-efficient technologies. b) Implementation of practices to reduce energy consumption.
c) Establishment of waste reduction initiatives. d) Integration of renewable energy sources. Correct Answer: c)
84. What does "Advanced Metering Infrastructure (AMI)" primarily help with in energy resource utilization? a) Waste Reduction b) Water Conservation c) Energy Efficiency d) Sustainable Transportation Correct Answer: c) 85. What is the primary goal of energy audits in the context of sustainable practices? a) To reduce water consumption. b) To identify opportunities for energy conservation and cost savings. c) To promote green building infrastructure. d) To encourage sustainable transportation. Correct Answer: b) 86. Which type of waste includes items that are not wet or soiled and are suitable for recycling, such as paper and plastic? a) Wet Waste b) Sanitary Waste c) Dry Waste d) E-Waste Correct Answer: c) 87. What type of waste consists of organic materials that can decompose, such as food scraps and soiled paper? a) Dry Waste b) E-Waste c) Hazardous Waste d) Wet Waste Correct Answer: d) 88. Which Act in India mandates that organizations provide differently-abled individuals with equal opportunities and a non-discriminatory atmosphere? a) The Equality Act b) The Disability Discrimination Act c) The Persons with Disabilities Act (PwD) d) The Workplace Inclusion Act Correct Answer: c)
Correct Answer: c)
95. Which of the following is a key benefit of using cloud-native architectures? a) Increased complexity in development. b) Reduced scalability and resilience. c) Enhanced scalability, resilience, and efficiency. d) Higher infrastructure costs. Correct Answer: c) 96. What does "horizontal scaling" primarily involve in cloud computing? a) Increasing the processing power of a single server. b) Adding more servers or instances to distribute the workload. c) Optimizing application code. d) Reducing the number of users. Correct Answer: b) 97. What is the purpose of a "rollback mechanism" in deployment processes? a) To speed up the deployment process. b) To automate testing. c) To revert to a stable state in case of deployment issues. d) To monitor application performance. Correct Answer: c) 98. What is a common use case for "message queues" in cloud applications? a) Database management. b) User authentication. c) Facilitating communication between different parts of an application. d) Securing application data. Correct Answer: c) 99. Which security measure involves converting data into an unreadable format to protect it from unauthorized access? a) Firewall b) Authentication c) Encryption d) Authorization Correct Answer: c) 100. Which cloud provider service is mentioned for its comprehensive suite of cloud services, including computing power, storage, and databases? a) Microsoft Azure b) Google Cloud Platform (GCP)
c) IBM Cloud d) Amazon Web Services (AWS) Correct Answer: d)
101. What is the primary benefit of using "containers" in cloud application deployment? a) Enhanced security b) Improved database performance c) Consistency across different environments and simplified deployment d) Reduced development costs Correct Answer: c) 102. Which of the following is a popular container orchestration platform used for managing containerized applications at scale? a) Docker Compose b) Ansible c) Kubernetes d) Terraform Correct Answer: c) 103. What is the main purpose of "continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD)" pipelines in cloud application development? a) To manage database migrations. b) To automate the building, testing, and deployment of applications. c) To monitor application performance. d) To secure application code. Correct Answer: b) 104. Which coding principle promotes writing code that scales horizontally to handle varying workloads effectively? a) Modularity and Code Reusability b) Error Handling and Logging c) Security-Centric Coding d) Scalability and Performance Optimization Correct Answer: d) 105. What is the benefit of documenting code and architectures thoroughly in cloud application development? a) To speed up the deployment process. b) To enhance security measures. c) To assist team collaboration, future developers, and troubleshooting. d) To reduce infrastructure costs. Correct Answer: c)
