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Top Tips for Acing the Canadian ATPL SARON Exam 2025/2026 Comprehensive Study Guide Curr, Exams of Securities Regulation

Top Tips for Acing the Canadian ATPL SARON Exam 2025/2026 Comprehensive Study Guide Current Updated Edition 2025/2026

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Top Tips for Acing the Canadian ATPL
SARON Exam 2025/2026
Comprehensive Study Guide Current
Updated Edition 2025/2026
What are the 5 things you must do when intercepted by a Military aircraft? - ANS1) Follow
Instructions
2) Respond to Signals
3) If possible, notify the appropriate ATS
4) Attempt Contact on 121.5
5) Squawk Mode A 7700 is capable
When is high altitude training required in a commercial air carrier? (3 Criteria) - ANS1)
Before Assignment on a pressurized aircraft
2) When operating above 13,000'
3) Every 3 years after completing initial training
In terms of duty time, how does required travelling for the purpose of position affect the
pilots duty time? - ANSIf the time for positioning is required after completion of a flight and
is in excess of the flight crew member's max duty time then an additional rest period of at
least equal to half of the time spent travelling is required.
What is the definition of a large aircraft? - ANSAn Aircraft with a MCTOW of 12,566lbs or
more
What airspace is a transponder required? - ANSClass A, B, C, and any D or E airspace that is
specified as transponder airspace in the Designated Airspace Handbook
When you're on an IFR flight plan and your ETA changes by more than ______ than you
have to advise ATC - ANS3 Minutes
A Flight crew member in a 704 or 705 operation requires _____ rest period(s) of at least 36
consecutive hours within each period of _____ consecutive days or one period of at least
_____ calendar days within each _____ consecutive days. - ANS1 rest period in 7
consecutive days
3 calendar days in 17 consecutive days
A turbo -jet aircraft or turbofan aircraft with a MCTOW of 12,566 pounds or more operating
under Part VII operations must have a _____ in order to legally take-off. - ANSA third
standby attitude indicator
What is the rule for lowest usable flight levels and altimeter setting? - ANS29.92" or Higher -
FL180 Lowest Usable
29.91" to 28.92" - FL190 Lowest Usable
28.91" to 27.92" - FL200 Lowest Usable
How long does an air operator have to keep a copy of an operational flight plan, including all
and any amendments? - ANSNot less than 90 days
What is the maximum distance that can be flown in an informal operational flight plan -
ANS25nm or less
When calculating the landing distance required to dispatch an aircraft, you may account for
no more than _____ of the headwind and no less than _____ of the tailwind. - ANS50%
150%
How do you calculate how many flight attendants that are required for a flight? - ANS1
Flight Attendant per 40 Passengers or for each portion of such a unit.
1) 1-40 Passengers = 1 Flight Attendant
2) 41-80 Passengers = 2 Flight Attendants
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
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pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
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pf1b
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pf20
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pf29
pf2a
pf2b
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pf2d
pf2e
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pf30
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pf36
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pf3a
pf3b
pf3c
pf3d
pf3e
pf3f

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Download Top Tips for Acing the Canadian ATPL SARON Exam 2025/2026 Comprehensive Study Guide Curr and more Exams Securities Regulation in PDF only on Docsity!

SARON Exam 2025/

Comprehensive Study Guide Current

Updated Edition 2025/

What are the 5 things you must do when intercepted by a Military aircraft? - ANS1) Follow Instructions

  1. Respond to Signals
  2. If possible, notify the appropriate ATS
  3. Attempt Contact on 121.
  4. Squawk Mode A 7700 is capable When is high altitude training required in a commercial air carrier? (3 Criteria) - ANS1) Before Assignment on a pressurized aircraft
  5. When operating above 13,000'
  6. Every 3 years after completing initial training In terms of duty time, how does required travelling for the purpose of position affect the pilots duty time? - ANSIf the time for positioning is required after completion of a flight and is in excess of the flight crew member's max duty time then an additional rest period of at least equal to half of the time spent travelling is required. What is the definition of a large aircraft? - ANSAn Aircraft with a MCTOW of 12,566lbs or more What airspace is a transponder required? - ANSClass A, B, C, and any D or E airspace that is specified as transponder airspace in the Designated Airspace Handbook When you're on an IFR flight plan and your ETA changes by more than ______ than you have to advise ATC - ANS3 Minutes A Flight crew member in a 704 or 705 operation requires _____ rest period(s) of at least 36 consecutive hours within each period of _____ consecutive days or one period of at least _____ calendar days within each _____ consecutive days. - ANS1 rest period in 7 consecutive days 3 calendar days in 17 consecutive days A turbo - jet aircraft or turbofan aircraft with a MCTOW of 12,566 pounds or more operating under Part VII operations must have a _____ in order to legally take-off. - ANSA third standby attitude indicator What is the rule for lowest usable flight levels and altimeter setting? - ANS29.92" or Higher - FL180 Lowest Usable 29.91" to 28.92" - FL190 Lowest Usable 28.91" to 27.92" - FL200 Lowest Usable How long does an air operator have to keep a copy of an operational flight plan, including all and any amendments? - ANSNot less than 90 days What is the maximum distance that can be flown in an informal operational flight plan - ANS25nm or less When calculating the landing distance required to dispatch an aircraft, you may account for no more than _____ of the headwind and no less than _____ of the tailwind. - ANS50% 150% How do you calculate how many flight attendants that are required for a flight? - ANS Flight Attendant per 40 Passengers or for each portion of such a unit.
  7. 1-40 Passengers = 1 Flight Attendant
  8. 41-80 Passengers = 2 Flight Attendants

SARON Exam 2025/

Comprehensive Study Guide Current

Updated Edition 2025/

  1. 81+ Passengers = 1 Flight Attendant per 40 group of passengers. i.e 155 Passengers would only be 4 because it "broke into" the next group of 40. OR 1 Flight Attendant per 50 Passengers or for each each portion of such a unit. Depends on what the Air Operator selects as ration in respect of the aeroplane model. A pilot working in a 705 operation must completed how many hours upon the completion of a PPC? - ANS75 hours in 90 days In order to be eligble to act as PIC of an aircraft in a 705 operation on a particular route or into a particular aerodome, they must have completed what? (2 Options) - ANS1) Acted as a flight crew member on the flight deck or as an observer within the last 12 months along that particular route or into that particular aerodrome, or
  2. Have received the required training and demonstrated adequate knowledge How do you calculate the first aid kit requirements? - ANS1) 0-50 = 1 Kit
  3. 51-150 = 2 kits
  4. 151-250 = 3 kits
  5. 251+ = 4 kits If issued a speed change, then you are required to maintain that speed to: - ANS+/- 10 KIAS What is the maximum flight duty time for a pilot on call? - ANS100 hours in 30 days In order to fly IFR, the pitot-static system must have been calibrated with in the last: - ANS months Whos duty is it to report "unforeseen operation circumstances" to the Minister? - ANSThe air operator ASAP When Operating an aircraft above FL250 in a pressurized aircraft in an air transport service; the aircraft must carry sufficient oxygen to supply the crew for a minimum of how many hours? - ANS When does the Pilot at the controls have to wear an oxygen mask? - ANS1) At all times while operating at cabin altitudes above 13,000'
  6. if not equipped with quick donning masks and operated above FL
  7. Regardless of mask type, when operating above FL What is the maximum holding speed of a propeller driven aircraft? - ANS175 KIAS A passenger oxygen briefing must be completed prior to passing what altitude in a pressurized aircraft? - ANSFL How long must an air operator hold on to pilot training records? - ANSAt least 3 years What is the rule for operating with an inoperative FDR?

SARON Exam 2025/

Comprehensive Study Guide Current

Updated Edition 2025/

In other words, 115% of Dry LDA. A Turbojet aircraft in a 705 operation may not be dispatched unless the landing distance required at the destination or alternate is at most _____ of the available landing distance. - ANS60% As a note, it can be dispatched if the destination doesn't meet this requirement but the alternate at the time of arrival does. A turboprop aircraft (turbo-jet pr large aircraft) operated in a Commuter Operation may not be dispatched unless the Landing Distance Required at the Alternate and Destination is at most _____ of the Landing Distance Available - ANS70% An Airplane may be left running only if: (3 Criteria) - ANS1) Danger/Warning cones placed either side and in front of the props to prevent people from walking into them are place.

  1. Someone competent at the controls
  2. The Aircraft is in the pilot's line of sight When a PPC has lapsed for more than _____ than the initial requirements of the PPC must be complied with. - ANS24 Months Safe movement of passengers to and from the airplane is the responsibility of who? - ANSThe Air Operator What is required for a flight within or into the ADIZ? - ANSA defensive flight plan or Itinerary A low level airway is _____ airspace and extends from _____ to _____. - ANS1) Controlled
  3. 2,200' AGL
  4. 17,999' ASL A control zone has a _____ radius and the normal vertical extent is up to _____. - ANS1) 7nm
  5. 3,000 Above Aerodrome Elevation A low level air route is _____ airspace and extends from _____ up to _____. - ANS1) Uncontrolled
  6. Surface of the earth
  7. 17,999' ASL What is the maximum speed below 3,000' AGL within 10nm of an aerodrome? - ANS KIAS What is the maximum speed below 10,000' ASL? - ANS250 KIAS In order to be a flight crew member on an aircraft in a commercial air service, the pilot must have completed _____ takeoffs and _____ landings in the previous _____. - ANS3 takeoffs and landings in the previous 90 days.

SARON Exam 2025/

Comprehensive Study Guide Current

Updated Edition 2025/

When does a Flight Data Recorder have to start and stop its recording? - ANSStart at the beginning of a takeoff Stop at the end of landing When does a Cockpit Voice Recorder have to start and stop recording? - ANSFrom the introduction of electrical power From the removal of electrical power A standby altimeter must work for a minimum of how many minutes/hours? - ANS Minutes IFR Flight planned speeds must be respected to within: - ANS5% KTAS 0.01 Mach What is the definition of a quick donning oxygen mask? - ANSAccessible with single hand operations in under 5 seconds What are the three requirements for Special VFR? - ANS1) Permission from ATC

  1. Operate Clear of Cloud
  2. 1 sm of Flight Visibility What is the Flight Time Limitations under Part VII - ANS1) 1200 hours in any 365 consecutive days
  3. 300 hours in any 90 consecutive days
  4. 120 hour in any 30 consecutive days
  5. 100 hours in any 30 consecutive days if on call
  6. 40 hours in any 7 consecutive days for 704/
  7. 60 hours in any 7 consecutive days for 702/
  8. 8 hours in any 24 consecutive hours for a single-pilot in IFR When are SOP's required? - ANSFor all Multi-crew flight crew situations What is the purpose of an Minimum Equipment List? - ANSProvides a simple list of deficiencies or deviations that shall allow operation of the aircraft, provided all operating restrictions are complied with What is the maximum altitude of a pressurized aircraft in a commercial operation that lacks drop down masks? - ANSFl Without authorization from the Air Operators Certificate, the maximum hours one can work in a day is? - ANS14 hours What is the rule for a split duty day? - ANSMay extend one half the length of the rest period up to a maximum of 3 hours (6 hours rest). the following rest period must be extended by the amount of time extended to last duty time. In other words, 6 hours rest, adds 3 hours extra duty time. following rest period must be extended by 3 hours. What entries are required on the first page of a new journey logbook? - ANSAs many as needed to ensure an unbroken chronological record is maintained In terms of same direction traffic: What is the vertical separation ground to FL290? Above FL290 (Non-RVSM)? Above FL290 (RVSM)? - ANS1) 2,000'

SARON Exam 2025/

Comprehensive Study Guide Current

Updated Edition 2025/

What will happen to your instrument(s) when you have a blocked pitot tube? - ANSAirspeed indicator will act like an altimeter When temperatures are colder than normal, you can expect an altimeter to: - ANSOver read because the rate at which the pressure drops with altitude will be higher than normal. What is Vref Speed? - ANSIt's the landing reference speed. Normally calculated 130% of the Vso The gyro relies on the principle of _____ in space to provide a stable reference. - ANSRigidity In terms of the gyro, what are the two types of errors in a heading indicator? - ANSReal Wander: Results from internal friction. Apparent Wander: Results when gyro maintains fixed orientation in space while the earth rotates around it. What does a turn coordinator utilize? What's the main principle behind it? How is its axis positioned? - ANSRate Gyro usually electrically driven Procession Slightly tilted in respect to the aircraft horizontal A turn and bank indicator axis is _____ and is _____ to the lateral aircraft axis - ANSHorizontally aligned Parallel The attitude indicator contains a gyroscope that is aligned _____ and used to indicate _____ - ANSVertically Pitch and Roll Attitudes What is IAS? CAS? TAS? EAS? - ANSIndicated Airspeed Calibrated airspeed corrected for position and instrument error Airspeed corrected for Temperature and Density Calibrated Airspeed corrected for compression error. What is Mcrit? - ANSThe speed at which the first shock wave forms on the wing of an aircraft What causes high speed buffet? - ANSShock waves on the wings causing separation of the airflow and the subsequent turbulent airflow behind the wings buffet the tail surfaces. What are the disadvantages of a sweptwing? - ANSDutch Roll Poor slow speed handling Where will shock waves first form on a swept wing aircraft? What are the effects of shockwaves forming? - ANSOn the wing root

SARON Exam 2025/

Comprehensive Study Guide Current

Updated Edition 2025/

Center of pressure moving back combined with a pitch down tendency. it also causes buffeting of the control surfaces. How does shock waves effect: Lift? Drag? Temperature? Pressure? Density? - ANSThe temperature, density and pressure all increase. Drag will increase Lift will decrease When flying for maximum range, what should you do when flying in: A headwind? A Tail wind? - ANSFly faster than you would in zero wind conditions to be exposed to the headwind for less time. Fly slower than you would in zero wind conditions to be exposed to the benefiting tail wind longer What is the Mach value for subsonic range? - ANS0 - 0.75 Mach Mach Tuck is a result of? - ANSWing's center of pressure moving aft with the aircraft's acceleration towards supersonic flight A laminar flow wing will have it's point of maximum thickness located at around? - ANS40% of the chord from the leading edge A conventional wing will have it's maximum thickness located at around? - ANS30% of the chord from the leading edge High speed aircraft are often fitted with stick pushers in order to? - ANSProvide a warning and aid in the recovery of impending stall What are the types of drag? - ANSInduced and Parasite drag What is Parasite drag? - ANSIt's drag that is proportional to air density, surface area, and velocity squared. 3 forms of Parasite drag:

  1. Skin Friction: Friction of air over the surfaces
  2. Form: Air over particular shape
  3. Interference: additional drag from two or more objects joined together What is Induced Drag? - ANSDrag that is a byproduct of lift What type of wing produces the most induced drag? - ANSLow aspect wings produce the most drag. High aspect wings produce less (hence the creation of winglets) What effects Induced Drag? - ANS1) Increase with an increase in weight

SARON Exam 2025/

Comprehensive Study Guide Current

Updated Edition 2025/

What is minimum period between donating blood and flying? - ANS48 hours is the recommendation Landing on a runway that is much wider than you are used to will give you the illusion of? - ANSBeing too low it will most likely cause you to be high on approach and flare early At night we see by means of _____ and takes _____ minutes to adopt before it is fully capable - ANSRods 3 0 Minutes When approaching an airport at night in a rural area when there are very few approach lights in the approach area, there is an illusion of being? - ANSToo High can cause you to fly a low approach Landing on a runway that is more narrow than you are used to can cause: - ANSThe illusion of being high on approach Can cause you to fly a low approach What illusion arises when the terrain around the runway is higher than the runway itself? - ANSThe illusion of being low on the approach Tendency to fly high on the approach What is the danger when an object lacks relative motion? - ANSEven though the object appears to be fixed because of the lack of relative motion; it may actually be converging with your flight path What part of the the eye is responsible for: Focusing the image on your retina? Low Light Vision? High Light Vision and Color? - ANSThe lens Rods Cones When can a false horizon occur? - ANSCan occur when flying on a clear moonless night over rural areas. Few lights can blend with the stars Can be brought on by sloping cloud ceilings What are some major symptoms of Hypoxia? - ANSEuphoria Tingling Feeling Dizziness Poor Coordination

SARON Exam 2025/

Comprehensive Study Guide Current

Updated Edition 2025/

Poor Judgement Head Ache Nausea Rapid Breathing What is the tolerance for testing two VOR's on-board equipment? - ANSThe OBS's on two independent VORs on the aircraft must indicate within 4 degrees of one another with the needle centered What is an Isogonal Line? - ANSA line joining points of equal magnetic variation What does a straight line represent on a Transverse Mercator Chart? - ANSA Rhumb Line A Lo-Altitude En-route Chart is what Type of Projection? - ANSLambert's Conformal Conic Projection How does wind effect the position of the CP? - ANSThe CP will always move in to the wind What is a straight line on a Lambert's Conformal Conic Projection? - ANSA Great Circle What is Magnetic Variation? - ANSThe difference between true and magnetic directions What is Compass Deviation? - ANSThe Difference between Magnetic direction and Compass Direction (An error) How much of the air passing through a turbine engine is actually involved in the combustion process? What is the air to fuel ratio? - ANS30% 15: What is a turbocharger? - ANSit uses the exhaust gas to spin a turbine that supplies a greater mass of air to the engine and thus increasing the engine power output What precautions should be take when shutting down a piston powered turbocharged engine?

  • ANSThe engine should be run at a low RPM to allow the turbocharger to slow down and cool On a multi-engine aircraft with a constant speed prop, the loss of oil pressure will cause the propeller to: - ANSFeather or move to a coarse position When is a compressor stall most likely to occur? - ANSDuring engine start up and acceleration In a turbocharged piston aircraft,the level of boost is normally controlled by _____ whose function is to _____. - ANSWastegate Divert exhaust gas around the turbine When the wastegate is fully open, we can say that: - ANSThe engine is normally aspirated How is cabin pressure regulated? - ANSThere is a constant inflow of compressed air supplied by the bleed air system. The outflow of air is variable and is controlled by the outflow valves What are the 3 main advantage of adding "Prist" to fuel? - ANS1) Lowers the fuel's freezing point (Anti-freeze)
  1. Reduces fungal growth
  2. Reduces bacteria growth How is power output gauged on a turbo-prop? - ANSProp RPM and Torque

SARON Exam 2025/

Comprehensive Study Guide Current

Updated Edition 2025/

  1. Larger Axial What can happen when the surge-bleed valves fail to open on schedule? - ANSA Hung Start Compressor Stall The air that comes out of the small perforations in the combustion chamber serve what 3 important purposes? - ANS1) Steers the flame in to the center
  2. Mixes with the combustion products and cools them before entering the turbine section
  3. Cools the inner wall What can happen when starting a turbine engine with a low starter battery? - ANSA Hot Start Can't accelerate the air through the engine What causes a Hung Start? - ANSSurge-bleed air valves failing to open while the low pressure compressor supplies too much air for the high pressure compressor What is Bypass Ratio? - ANSThe air which bypasses the combustion chamber to the mass of air which is passing through the combustion chamber What system(s) will activate in a maximum pressure differential situation? - ANSOutflow Valves Cabin Safety Valves What opens in the event of outside pressure exceeding the cabin pressure and will also open in response to a squat switch activating on touchdown? - ANSOutflow Valves Cabin Safety Valves What is the definition of a service ceiling? - ANSThe density altitude at which the rate of climb is reduced to 100' per minute What surface should be de-iced first? - ANSThe surface that is visible from the cockpit What are the standard weights for passengers? What is included in these weights? - ANSSummer:
  4. Man - 200
  5. Woman - 165
  6. Child (2-12 both inclusive) - 75
  7. Infant (less than 2) - 30 Winter:
  8. Man - 206
  9. Woman - 171
  10. Child (2-12) - 75
  11. Infant (less than 2) - 30 Carry on baggage of 13 pounds What is CRFI? How do we use it? - ANS1) Canadian Runway Friction Index. A number from 0-1.0, 1 being the most friction and maximum ability to brake and 0 the least

SARON Exam 2025/

Comprehensive Study Guide Current

Updated Edition 2025/

  1. On a crosswind chart, after checking the crosswind components, anything left of the minimum CRFI we cannot land, anything to the right of it is safe to land. When is wake Turbulence Strongest? Where is it most severe? When and where does it start and end? - ANS1) Behind a heavy, slow, clean configured aircraft
  2. 1,000 behind below and behind an aircraft
  3. Wake turbulence from the wing tip vertices will start at a point where lift starts to be generated (at rotation) and end when the nose wheel settle on the ground (on touch down) What is a stop way? - ANSA load bearing extension at the end of the runway which can be use to stop. Not part of the runway Must be sufficient to carry weight of the aircraft and provide a coefficient of friction at least equal to that of the main runway What is a clearway? - ANSA clear area at the end of the runway which an aircraft can accelerate and climb after takeoff. Must be free of obstacles, not slope uphill away from the runway by more than 1.25%. Must be wider than the runway itself. Maximum Clearway to be used in calculations is 1,000' and can be only used for the climb from 17.5' to 35' above the runway How does weight effect the V1 Speed? - ANSAs takeoff weight increases, stopping will become more difficult but continuing to takeoff will be much more difficult. Thus an increase in takeoff weight will cause an increase in V1 speed. How does wind effect V1 speed? - ANSHeadwind will increase the V1 speed It'll reduce your accelerate-stop distance and accelerate-go distance. (Remember, V1 is an indicated airspeed so increase in headwind reduces the GROUND speed required to achieve V1 airspeed) How will a runway slope effect the V1 speed? - ANSUphill slope will make it more difficult to continue the takeoff but will help in stopping. V1 will increase in an up-slope runway conditions V1 will decrease in an down-slope runway conditions

SARON Exam 2025/

Comprehensive Study Guide Current

Updated Edition 2025/

airspeed however, the ground speed will be higher in relation to the Vref speed at the airport with a high density altitude. As density altitude increases, Indicated airspeed decreases and so a higher ground speed will be required to achieve Vref. When approaching to land at a high altitude airport, the ground speed at touchdown will be _____ than it would approaching an airport at sea level given the same temperature and wind conditions. - ANSHigher What is TORA - ANSTotal Runway Available What is TODA? - ANSTakeoff Distance Available TORA + Clearway What is ASDA? - ANSAccelerate - Stop Distance Available TORA + Stopway What is the maximum distance of a clearway that can be used in calculations - ANS1,000' A centrifugal flow compressor is ______ efficient compared to an axial flow. They have a _____ damage tolerance and a _____ frontal area. - ANSLess Higher Larger What is the most likely cause of a compressor stall? - ANSAirflow in the engine inlet striking the compressor blades at too high an angle of atttack What stops the propellers on a turboprop form entering the reverse range during cruise flight?

  • ANSLow Pitch Stops How is cabin pressure in the cabin controlled? - ANSBy regulating the outflow of air from the cabin using the cabin controller What is bypass ratio? - ANSAir which flows through the bypass duct to the air which passes through the combustion chamber What is the main difference between the ignition systems on a piston engine versus a turbine engine? - ANSA piston engine produces a spark every cycle a turbine engine's igniters are on for startup, during turbulence, low power settings and heavy precipitation What are the two main advantages of fuel injection? - ANS1) they don't suffer the same icing problems as carburetors
  1. Distribute fuel more evenly The free turbine turboprop, when shut down, will generally leave the props in: - ANSThe Feathered Position What are the propellers of the free-spool (free turbine) turboprop driven by? - ANSThe power turbine What is N1? and N2? - ANSN1 is the speed of the low pressure compressor and turbine N2 is the speed of the high pressure compressor and turbine

SARON Exam 2025/

Comprehensive Study Guide Current

Updated Edition 2025/

What does Turbocharged mean? Turbo-normalized? - ANSA compressor turbine increases the mass of air to a pressure higher than that of air pressure at sea level A compressor turbine increases the mass of air to a pressure of air at sea level What is a 703 Operation Aircraft? - ANSA single-engine aircraft A multi-engine aircraft other than a turbojet powered aircraft that was a MCTOW of 8,618kg (19,000 pounds) or less and has a seating configuration, excluding the pilots, of 9 or less. What is a 704 Operation Aircraft? - ANSA multi-engine aircraft with a MCTOW of 8,618kg (19,000 pounds) or less and a seating configuration of, excluding the pilots, 10-19 inclusive A turbojet aircraft with a Zero Fuel Weight of 22,680kg (50,000 pounds) or less for which a Canadian type rating certificate has been issued to carry not more than 19 passangers What is a 705 Operation Aircraft? - ANSAny other aircraft not authorized in 704 operation, with a MCTOW of 8,618kg (19,000 pounds) or more, for which a Canadian type certificate has authorized the transport of 20 or more passengers What is the maximum holding speed for a: Propeller Aircraft? (including turboprop) Civil Turbojet? When Climbing? - ANS1) To 30,000' - 175 KIAS

  1. Over 14,000' - 265 KIAS Under 14,000' - 230 KIAS
  2. Turboprop - Normal Climbing Speed Jet Aircraft - 310 KIAS or less What is the Medical Class 1 requirements for a pilot of 40 years or older flying in a single pilot passenger carrying operation? - ANS1) An ECG within the past 24 months
  3. Audiogram from the first medical over 55 years old
  4. Medical in the last 6 months What are the vertical dimensions of the Southern Control Area? (SCA) - ANS18,000' ASL and Above What are the vertical dimensions of the Northern Control Area? (NCA) - ANSFL230 - FL What are the vertical dimensions of the Arctic Control Area? (ACA) - ANSFL270 - FL What are the vertical dimensions of the Canadian Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications? (CMNPS) - ANSFL330 to FL What are the vertical dimensions of the Canadian Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications Transition Area? (CMNPS Transition Area) - ANSFL270 to FL

SARON Exam 2025/

Comprehensive Study Guide Current

Updated Edition 2025/

passenger seats The Air Operator may not operate an aircraft at a weight which will not allow it to attain with any engine inoperative, a net flight path which has a positive slope at _____ feet above all terrain and obstructions within _____ on either side of intended track - ANS1,000' 5 nm The North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Airspace (NAT MNPA) has a lower vertical limit of _____ and an upper vertical limit of _____ and between Latitudes of _____ and _____ as specified in the AIM - ANSFL FL 27° N North Pole What is the definition of a High Performance Aircraft? - ANSVne speed of greater than 250 KIAS Vso speed of greater than 80 KIAS When is a FDR required? - ANS1) Any of the following multi-engine turbine powered aircraft A) An aircraft type rating for 30 or fewer passenger configured for 10 or more passenger seats manufactured after October 11, 1991 B) An aircraft type rating for 30 or fewer passenger configured for 20-30 passenger seats C) An Aircraft certified to transport 30 or more passengers D) An aircraft authorized to transport cargo only under subpart 5 of Part VII (705) General Rule of Thumb Basically any Multi-engined Turbine Aircraft with 10 or more passangers and an aircraft that is certified under Subpart 5 of Part VII that transports only cargo. When is a CVR required? - ANSA multi-engined turbine-powered aircraft that is configured for 6 or more passenger seats and for which two pilots are required by the aircraft type certificate or by the subpart under which the aircraft is operated When is a GPWS required? - ANSTurbojet aircraft with a MCTOW of 33,069 pounds (15,000kg) or more and for which a type rating certificate has been issued authorizing transport of 10 or more passengers in a 704/705 operation What are the Flight Time Limitations? - ANS1) 1200 - 365 days

  1. 300 - 90 consecutive days
  2. 120 - 30 consecutive days

SARON Exam 2025/

Comprehensive Study Guide Current

Updated Edition 2025/

  1. 100 - 30 consecutive days for a crew member on call
  2. 60 - 7 consecutive days for a 702/
  3. 40 - 7 consecutive days for 704/
  4. 8 - 24 consecutive hours for single pilot IFR What is Class A airspace? - ANSExcludes VFR IFR separation by ATC Must have a transponder Base of all high level controlled airspace, or from 700' AGL, whichever is higher , up to and including FL In the SCA: 18,000' ASL or 700' AGL whichever is higher up to FL In the NCA: FL230 - FL In the ACA: FL270 - FL 600 What is Class B Airspace? - ANSIFR and Controlled VFR (CVFR) ATC Provides Separation All Low Level Controlled Airspace above 12,500' ASL or at and above the MEA, whichever is higher, up to but not including 18,000' ASL Control Zones and Terminal Control Areas may be Class B What is Class C Airspace? - ANSControlled Airspace Both IFR and VFR (VFR requires a clearence) ATC provides separation for IFR only Class C becomes Class E when ATC is not in operation Control Zones and Terminal Control Areas may be Class C What is Class D Airspace? - ANSControlled Airspace Both IFR and VFR (VFR needs to establish two way communication) ATC provides separation for IFR only Class D becomes Class E when ATC is not in operation Control Zones and Terminal Control Areas may be Class D What is Class E Airspace? - ANSControlled Airspace