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CDR DTR Practice Exam
Reasons that the general population is told to "eat your colors" when referring to fruits and vegetables include all of the following except: a. the different color contain different phytochemicals b. selecting from all five colors ensures adequate protein intake c. doing so ensures adequate fiber intake, which may protect against certain types of cancers d. eating the colors helps lower type 2 diabetes and heart disease risks - b. selecting from all 5 colors ensures adequate protein intake Which of the following cooking methods is recommended for cuts of beef such as stew beef, short ribs, chuck steak or beef round? a. pan frying b. broiling c. roasting d. braising - d. braising genetically engineering food is a process by which scientists alter the gene make up of certain types of foods to achieve a certain characteristic. All of the following are potential benefits of genetically engineered food, except: a. a faster growing food supply, thus greater food production b. foods that tastes better and is more nutritious c. shorter shelf life d. reductions in pesticide use - c. shorter shelf life Egg yolks used in lemon meringue pie primarily serve as which of the following agents? a. emulsifying agent b. coloring agent c. thickening agent d. textural agent - b. coloring agent Which of the following is not an ingredient in baking powder? a. corn starch b. sodium bicarbonate c. cream of tartar d. potassium bicarbonate - d. potassium bicarbonate Two men are the same age and both weight 150#, but one man 5'7" and the other is 6' tall. What can be determined about their resting metabolic rate? a. their resting metabolic rate is about the same b. the resting metabolic rate is higher for the taller man c. the resting rate is higher for the shorter man
d. it is difficult to draw conclusions based on the info available - b. the resting metabolic rate is higher for the taller man Which of the following statements is not true about soluble fiber? a. as soluble fiber is digested, it becomes gel-like b. soluble fiber works to slow the digestive process c. soluble fiber works to add bulk to the stool to help move food through the digestive tract faster d. soluble fiber may help lower cholesterol levels - c. soluble fiber works to add bulk to the stool to help move food through the digestive tract faster Chronic alcoholics are most likely to be deficient in the following nutrients, except: a. magnesium b. thiamin c. folate d. vitamin C - d. vitamin c The end product of sucrose digestion is: a. glucose and fructose b. glucose and galactose c. glucose and mannose d. 2 glucose molecules - a. glucose and fructose Protein digestion begins in the: a. jejunum b. stomach c. small intestine d. brush border - b. stomach A deficiency of vitamin D results in: a. rickets b. night blindness c. scurvy d. beri beri - a. rickets All of the following are true about vitamin C, except: a. the best food sources of vitamin C are fruits, such as citrus, and vegetables, such as broccoli b. cigarette smokers should consume at least 100mg per day of vitamin c c. deficiency of vitamin c can result in issues with wound healing, bleeding gums, tooth loss, and leg pain d. the RDA is 75 mg for women and 100 mg for men - d. the RDA is 75 mg for women and 100 mg for men -RDA increases for women during pregnancy and breastfeeding -the RDA for men is 90 mg Which of the following choices indicates nutritional risk?
Anthropometric measurements for children should include: a. weight for age, height or length for age and head circumference up to the age of 2 b. weight for age, skin-fold thickness and length or height for age c. weight for age, height or length for age and head circumference up to the age of 3 d. weight for age, skin-fold thickness, height or length for age and head circumference up to the age of 3 - c. weight for age, height or length for age and head circumferences up to the age of 3 All of the following are true about the Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA) except: a. it is a validated tool used for nutrition screening and assessment in the over age 65 population b. the MNA screens for malnutrition or those who are at risk for malnutrition c. there is a short form to more quickly determine if a person is in good nutritional status and a longer form if a more detailed screen is required d. specialized training is required in order to be certified to administer this screening tool - a. it is a validated tool used for nutritional screening and assessment in the over age 65 population All of the following are true statements about nutrition diagnosis except: a. nutrition diagnosis is when a nutritional issue is identified and labeled b. a physician must make a nutritional diagnosis in order for the individual to receive nutritional care c. a nutrition diagnosis is documented as problem-etiology-signs/symptoms d. standardized terminology is used to delineate nutritional diagnoses - c. a nutritional diagnosis is documented as problem-etiology-signs/symptoms Potential nutrition diagnoses for an obese male with coronary heart disease may include all of the following except: a. food and nutrition related knowledge deficit b. physical inactivity c. excessive fat intake d. excessive hunger - d. excessive hunger Potential nutrition diagnoses for a patient with a fasting blood glucose level of 135 mg/dl might include: a. alteration in metabolism (type 1 diabetes) b. alteration in metabolism (hyperglycemia) c. altered nutrition related lab values d. gestational diabetes - c. altered nutrition related lab values -all the rest of medical diagnoses The recommended amount of weight gain for overweight pregnant woman is: a. 15-25# b. 25-35# c. 15# d. 28-40# - a. 15-25# Folic acid requirements during pregnancy are increased because folic acid: a. deficiency causes glossitis
b. helps prevent neural tube defects c. prevents pernicious anemia d. deficiency causes poor appetite - b. helps prevent neural tube defects The best feeding plan for a normal 3-month old infant is: a. (8) 4 oz bottles of 20 cal/oz formula per day b. (6) 5 oz bottles of 20 cal/oz formula per day plus rice cereal added to the bottle at night c. breastfeeding on demand d. breastfeeding alternated with 20 cal/oz formula throughout the day - c. breastfeeding on demand
- if unable to breastfeed = standard 20 cal/oz Feeding a preschooler is often challenging due to food jags, pickiness, or the child's attempts to assert independence. What are effective strategies for managing a preschooler's nutrition? a. the child should be made to sit at the table until the meal or snack is consumed entirely b. small servings of a variety of foods should be offered on a fairly regular schedule c. snacks and beverages should not be provided within 90 minutes of a planned meal d. the parents should not focus too heavily on what is consumed at each meal or snack because over the course of a day, the calorie intake will be fairly consistent if a variety of foods are offered - a. the child should be made to sit at the table until the meal or snack is consumed entirely Characteristics of the metabolic syndrome include all of the following, except: a. serum triglyceride greater than 150 mg/dl b. serum glucose greater than 110 mg/dl c. waist circumference greater than 102 cm in men and 88 cm in women d. blood pressure greater than or equal to 140/90 mm hg - d. blood pressure greater than or equal to 140/90 mm hg
- 135-85 mm hg The best initial nutrition intervention for a person with metabolic syndrome is: a. encouraging a 20% weight loss and at least 60 minutes per day of exercise b. implementing the TLC diet and increasing physical activity to a minimum of 30 min per day c. encouraging a 5-10% weight loss and implementing the dean ornish diet d. smoking cessation and adding medications to reduce lipids - b. implementing the TLC diet and increasing physical activity to a min of 30 min per day What type of diet is used to treat celiac disease? a. gluten free b. low fiber c. lactose free d. high fiber - a. gluten free What is the recommended initial nutrition intervention for diverticulitis? a. high fiber diet w/ adequate fluid and exercise b. high fat diet with moderate fiber c. chemically defined diet d. low fiber diet -
banana = 15g Intervention aimed to modify which of the following risk factors will reduce cardiovascular risk? a. age, cigarette smoking, obesity b. high fat diet, hypertension, cigarette smoking c. diabetes, homocysteine, alcohol consumption d. family history, LDL cholesterol, physical activity - b. high fat diet, hypertension, cigarette smoking Which of the following are examples of omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids? a. palmitic acid and lauric acid b. eicosapentaenoic acid and docosahexaenoic acid c. linoleic acid and linolenic acid d. arachidonic acid and oleic acid - b. EPA and DHA a - palm oil and saturated fat c - omega 6 and omega 3 d - polyunsaturated and monounsatured omega 9 All of the following are true about trans fatty acids, except: a. trans fats are created through hydrogenation, which is a process that helps to prevent polyunsaturated fats from becoming rancid b. trans fats are found in commercially prepared baked goods, fried foods, processed foods, and some margarines c. the food industry has begun to alter the manufacturing of many products to omit trans fats, and many restaurants have stopped using partially hydrogenated oils d. trans fats lower HDL levels and increase total cholesterol but have no effect of LDL cholesterol - d. trans fats lower HDL levels and increase total cholesterol but have no effect of LDL cholesterol A pt in the hospital recovering from a heart attack wants assistance with his menu selection. He is looking to increase fiber in his diet as he has learned that certain types of fiber more efficiently reduce cholesterol levels. Which of the following foods would be the most beneficial? a. oatmeal b. wheat bran c. carrots d. whole wheat bread - a. oatmeal
- soluble fibers such as dried beans/peas, rice bran, citrus fruits, apples and strawberries reduce cholesterol
- insoluble fiber such as whole wheat bread, cereals, wheat bran, and carrots do not Which of the following best describes the guidelines for the Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes (TLC) diet? a. limit sodium to 3000 mg/day, calories from fat to less than 35% of total cals, w/ those from sat fat less than 10%, cholesterol to less than 300 mg/day, and sufficient kcals to achieve and maintain a healthy body wt b. limit sodium to 3000 mg/day, kcals from fat to less than 30% of total kcals, w/ those from sat fat making up less than 5%, cholesterol to less than 200 mg/day, and sufficient kcals to achieve or maintain a healthy body weight
c. limit sodium to 2400 mg/day, kcals from fat to 25-35% of total kcals, with those from sat fat less than 7%, cholesterol to less than 200 mg/day, and sufficient kcals to achieve or maintain a healthy body weight d. limit sodium to 2400 mg/day, kcals from fat to 30% of total kcals, with those from sat fat less than 10%, cholesterol to less than 200 mg/day, and sufficient - c. limit sodium to 2400 mg/day, kcals from fat to 25-35% of total kcals, with those from sat fat less than 7%, cholesterol to less than 200 mg/day, and sufficient kcals to achieve or maintain a healthy body weight Which of the following is the next step for an individual who does not want to begin medication to lower blood cholesterol but has not had success with the TLC diet? a. consume less than 20% of total kcals from fat, with less than 10% coming from saturated sources, and less than 200 mg cholesterol per day b. consume less than 15% of total kcals from fat, with less than 8% coming from saturated sources, and less than 100 mg cholesterol per day c. consume less than 10% of total kcals from fat, with less than 5% coming from saturated sources, and less than 50 mg cholesterol per day d. consume less than 10% of total kcals from fat, with less than 3% coming from saturated sources, and less than 5 mg cholesterol per day - d. consume less than 10% of total kcals from fat, with less than 3% coming from saturated sources, and less than 5 mg cholesterol per day The purpose of nutrition screening includes all of the following, except: a. identifying risk factors known to be associated with nutritional issues b. identifying individuals who are malnourished c. assessing body mass index d. to more efficiently identify individuals who require a full nutrition assessment - c. assessing body mass index What lifestyle change is most beneficial to a person with hypertension? a. limiting alcohol to 1 oz/day for men or 1/2 oz/day for women b. lose weight if overweight c. lower sodium intake to less than 2400 mg/day d. increase intake of calcium, magnesium, and potassium - b. lose weight if overweight As a dietetic technician, you are assisting in a program targeting overweight adolescents at risk for developing hypertension. What would be an appropriate goal for the program? a. address lifestyle modifications such as weight control, reducing sodium intake, and increasing physical that are known to control blood pressure b. weight loss c. blood pressure monitoring d. teach the adolescents appropriate forms of physical activity in order to promote positive exercise habits - a. address lifestyle modifications such as weight control, reducing sodium intake, and increasing physical that are known to control blood pressure A woman is following the DASH diet. She is consuming 1800 kcal/day. Which of the following sets of nutritional goals is appropriate DASH diet guidelines?
b. 0.6 g/kg A side effect of chemotherapy is mucositis and xerostomia. This can impact nutritional status because: a. weight loss can occur d/t nausea and vomiting b. food intake is reduced d/t constipation and abdominal pain c. anorexia, reduced food intake and weight loss can occur d/t mouth pain and dryness d. weight loss can occur d/t dysphagia - c. anorexia, reduced food intake and wt loss can occur d/t mouth pain and dryness
- mucositis = inflammation of mucous membranes
- xerostomia = abnormal dryness Possible nutrition interventions with a child with cancer who is not eating enough include all of the following, except: a. serve small meals and snacks throughout the day capitalizing on the times when the child is feeling hungry and wants to eat b. encourage liquids mostly between meals b/c drinking a lot of fluid w/ meals may make the child feel full c. let the child help make the food they will eat and have friends over to eat with the child d. serve meals on a tight schedule b/c missing a meal will set the child back too far - d. serve meals on a tight schedule b/c missing a meal will set the child back too far A 78 year-old man is recovering from a stroke. The speech language pathologist has a recommended a NDD level 2 diet for him. This consists of: a. no restrictions on consistency b. foods that are softer in texture but require more ability to chew c. moist, semisolid foods that require some chewing ability d. puree foods w/ pudding like consistency and minimal chewing ability is required - c. moist, semisolid foods that require some chewing ability You are working at the local health department initiating health promotion programs. Which of the following departments of the Department of Health and Human Services may provide guidance for program development? a. dietary reference intake b. healthy people 2020 c. NHANES d. dietary guidelines for americans - b. healthy people 2020 As a dietetic technician, you are planning menus for a nursing home. What tools are you likely to use during this process? a. dietary reference intake (DRI) b. recommended dietary allowances (RDA) c. tolerable upper limits (TUL) d. estimated average requirements - a. dietary reference intake (DRI) The main highlights of the 2005 Dietary Guidelines for Americans include all of the following, except: a. achieve and maintain a healthy body weight and incorporate at least 60 min of moderate exercise to help w/ weight management
b. limit fat intake to 20-35% of total kcals, with less than 10% of fat intake from sat fat sources, and limit the intake of trans fatty acids c. consume plenty of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains to protect against certain chronic diseases d. eat less than 2300 mg/day of sodium and consume 3 cups/day of low fat or fat-free dairy products - c. consume plenty of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains to protect against certain chronic diseases
- 2000 guidelines
- 2005 guidelines are more specific Which of the following physical conditions would not be considered a nutritional risk factor? a. obesity b. stage IV decubitus ulcer c. cancer d. fractured femur - d. fractured femur While serving as a dietetic technician, you are tasked w/ visiting patients in a long-term care facility during mealtime in order to long-term observe daily food intake. Which of the following observations are you least likely to see? a. a pt w/ dementia consumes less than 50% of breakfast and lunch during a 2-day period b. a pt who is S/P major cardiac surgery is not able to effectively use utensils provided to self-feed c. a pt who is ordered supplemental beverages w/ meals in order to increase caloric intake does not drink the supplements during the 2 day observation d. a patient recovering from a stroke appears to tolerate a puree diet and may be able to tolerate an advance to a soft diet - d. a patient recovering from a stroke appears to tolerate a puree diet and may be able to tolerate an advance to a soft diet Documentation developed to facilitate the Nutrition Care Process (NCP) is called: a. ADIME b. SOAP c. PES d. DAR - a. ADIME assessment diagnosis intervention monitoring evaluation Which of the following is not a true statement about the pancreas? a. the pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon b. pancreatic enzymes are secreted when food reaches the stomach c. the pancreas is one of the organs affected by cystic fibrosis d. tumors in the pancreas are highly resectable and have a favorable cure rate - d. tumors in the pancreas are highly resectable and have a favorable cure rate All of the following statements are true about the Supplemental Nutritional Assistance Program (SNAP), except:
b. encouragement c. reflective listening d. rewards and reinforcement - d. rewards and reinforcement Which of the following strategies is most likely to have the best nutrition counseling outcomes? a. cognitive restructuring b. self-monitoring c. structured meals d. social support - b. self-monitoring
- record keeping of behaviors, nutrition and emotions As a DTR, you serve as the evening shift supervisor at a hospital. The food service director asks you to join a collaborative training to learn how the kitchen functions over a period of several months. The training objective is for you to gain familiarity with and competence in the key kitchen positions so that you may better supervise and assist employees. What type of training is this? a. adult b. on-the-job c. group d. self-directed - b. on the job All of the following are true about diversity training in the workplace, except: a. diversity training deals only with gender and race b. diversity should be a part of an organization's culture so everyone is treated fairly and equally c. interpersonal skills, on the part of both the organization and individual employees, are an important aspect of diversity training d. diversity training is necessary even in a non-diverse environment as each individual is different - a. diversity training deals only with gender and race At the start of a training session, employees are asked to break into small groups and share their 5 favorite musicians or movies. This is an example of: a. an icebreaker b. small talk c. time killer d. team enhancement - a. an icebreaker Which of the following strategies is not recommended for imparting nutrition info to a group of individuals with heart disease? a. provide a limited amount of info at one time to avoid overwhelming the group b. present the info in a clear, concise language in the simplest and lease complex way possible c. ensure written info is geared toward a high school comprehension level d. supplement orally presented info w/ visual aids - c. ensure written info is geared toward a high school comprehension level
- most ppl read at an 5th-8th grade level The type of menu that provides at least two choices in each menu category is called:
a. static b. nonselective c. semi-selective d. selective - d. selective static - same choices nonselective - no choices semi-selective - 1 choice Which of the following is not an advantage of a cycle menu? a. a cycle menu increases variety b. cycle menus facilitate staff vacation and leave scheduling c. cycle menus allow greater ease when forecasting and purchasing food d. equipment use can be maximized if the cycle menu is planned appropriately - a. a cycle menu increase variety a dinner of broiled fish, steamed rice, cauliflower, bread and butter, and tapioca pudding with whipped cream is planned for a Friday evening at the retirement home. What food characteristic is most lacking? a. texture b. flavor c. color d. consistency - c. color The food service director of an extended care facility wishes to review changes in the food served to residents with the DTR. All of the following tools are needed to assist with this task, except: a. a diet manual b. a master menu c. info regarding the # and types of modified diets served d. the production schedule - d. the production schedule the concept encouraging a more personalized presentation of menus to hospitalized patients is called: a. printed menu b. spoken menu c. menu board d. master menu - b. spoken menu As a DTR in a rehab hospital, you are responsible for determining customer satisfaction with meals. Some of the ways you may accomplish this include all of the following, except: a. comment cards or surveys b. observational surveys c. eavesdropping d. plate waste studies - c. eavesdropping food that is purchased from an instate vendor and shipped intrastate is subject to all of the following regulations except:
d. cases or crates should be randomly opened to verify contents - c. frozen items should be placed immediately in the freezer before inspection You enter the dry food storage area and make a few observations. Which of the following would be the most concerning to you? a. the temp is 68 b. new orders are being placed on top of existing inventory c. bags of rice are stored on shelves 8" above the floor d. an open sack of flour is found in a covered and labeled plastic container - b. new orders are being placed on top of existing inventory
- dry storage temp should be 50- You are completing inventory in the walk in refrigerator. Which of the following should be discarded? a. 2-day old leftover beef stew w/ a temp of 40 b. hard cooked eggs cooked 5 days ago w/ a temp of 39 c. tightly wrapped hard cheese that is 5 months old w/ a temp of 40 d. 4-day old ground beef w/ a temp of 42 - d. 4-day old ground beef w/ a temp of 42
- no higher than 38 for more than 2 days
- hard cooked eggs can be kept at 40 for 7 days
- tightly wrapped hard cheese kept at 40 for up to 6 months
- leftover beef stew kept at 40 is good up to 4 days Which of the following terms means predicting the amount of food needed for a specific event? a. production b. forecasting c. purchasing d. food scheduling - b. forecasting Which of the following is not an advantage of standardized recipes? a. customers or pts can be assured that the menu item will not change each time it is served b. standardized recipes help to facilitate the forecasting, purchasing, and production processes c. the recipes can easily be extended by the chef if additional food is required d. standardized recipes are necessary when using computerized systems b/c the reports use that format to communicate to various areas such as centralized ingredient area or purchasing - c. the recipes can easily be extended by the chef if additional food is required
- should be adjusted in advance If you are using the factor method to adjust a recipe that serves 8 to serve 50, which factor would you use to make the adjustments? a. 6. b. 6 c. 7 d. 0.16 - a. 6. 50/8 = 6.
Food is prepared in a hospital kitchen; cooked, portioned, and assembled on the tray line; and then served to patients is an example of what type of food service? a. cook/freeze b. cook/chill c. cook/hot hold d. heat/serve - c. cook/hot hold Which of the following laws apply to a hospital cafeteria renovation? a. the rehabilitation act b. the workforce investment act c. the civil service reform act d. the americans with disabilities act - d. the americans with disabilities act
- law requires areas to be accessible to everyone An individual has become ill 6 hrs after eating at a salad bar buffet containing various cooked meats, cottage cheese, and potato salad. The symptoms are nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and severe abdominal cramping. The microorganism most likely responsible for this outbreak is: a. clostridium botulinum b. staphylococcus aureus c. e. coli 0157:H d. campylobacter jejuni - b. staphylococcus aureus
- cross contamination As the cafeteria manager, you notice that the hamburgers are not cooked to the proper temperature and are very rare on the inside. What are you most concerned about? a. salonella b. E. coli 0157:H c. bacillus cereus d. shigella - b. e. coli
- found in raw beef, fruit/veg, soft cheeses, unpasterized dairy Which of the following groups are at the highest risk if listeriosis is contracted? a. infants b. children, aged 1- c. older adults d. pregnant women - d. pregnant women
- results in stillbirth, premature delivery
- found in raw foods, processed foods, hot dogs, deli meats, soft cheeses
- symptoms: muscle aches, nausea, diarrhea Which of the following temperature ranges is known as the danger zone? a. 41- b. 35- c. 50-
a. a tray-line worker who has been dismissed due to workforce reduction b. a cook who was using recreational drugs in the restroom during scheduled breaks c. a DTR who voluntarily stopped showing up for work d. a food service supervisor who has accepted a job requiring early morning hours but habitually comes in 1 hour late each day - a. a tray-line worker who has been dismissed due to workforce reduction Which of the following employment advertisement modes is least likely to effectively recruit a new food service director at a large, tertiary-care hospital? a. internet advertising on a web site, such as monster.com b. internal sources c. recruitment agency d. advertising in a weekly local newspaper - d. advertising in a weekly local newspaper Retaining good employees is challenging. Which of the following is least likely to promote employee retention? a. offering an excellent benefits package, including health insurance, life insurance, 401K, etc b. rewarding employees for good performance with bonuses or consistent raises c. maintaining rigid scheduling b/c work comes first d. providing opportunities to learn skills - c. maintaining rigid scheduling b/c work comes first A new dish machine is needed for the retirement home kitchen. The money to purchase this piece of equipment will come from which part of the budget? a. master b. operating c. capital d. cash - c. capital
- master includes operating, capital, + cash budgets
- operating is day to day
- cash: incoming/outgoing labor costs in the hospital cafeteria have been over budget for several months due to overtime. which of the following would not be an immediate solution to the problem? a. dismiss a few employees to control labor costs b. review the operation to see if additional self-serve stations can be implemented c. review the scheduling procedure to see if overtime is justified and see if some of the prep work can be moved to non-peak hours d. determine if employees are being properly supervised and performing tasks appropriately - a. dismiss a few employees to control labor costs In Maslow's Hierarchy of needs, which of the following needs must be met first? a. social b. safety c. self-esteem d. physiological - d. Physiological - hunger, thirst, shelter, clothing, breathing
- safety, social, self esteem, self-actualization an employee attempts to provide input to his food service manager with regard to the workflow surrounding the prep area. The manager tells the employee that the necessary changes have already been instituted and there is no room for discussion on the matter. This is an example of what type of leadership style? a. democratic b. autocratic c. bureaucratic d. participative - b. autocratic
- leaders makes a decisions Effective communication involves all of the following, except: a. oral b. written c. action or demonstration d. grapevine - d. grapevine Which of the following would not be an example of good merchandising? a. fruit in a plastic container in the refrigerator b. polished, clean, and unbruised apples, oranges, pears, and bananas in a large wicker basket c. pre-plated fruit plates w/ interesting garnishes d. weekly-featured fresh fruits with recipes, creative presentation of the fruit, such as ka-bobs, or a special fruit dip - a. fruit in a plastic container in the refrigerator The hospital cafeteria has added Pissa Hut pizza and Boar's Head deli meats to its employee menu. This is an example of: a. marketing b. branding c. promotion planning d. mark-up merchandising - b. branding Which of the following is not a JCAHO approved medical abbreviation? a. mg for milligram b. ml for milliliter c. Q.D. for every day or daily d. IV for intravenous - c. Q.D. for every day or daily As a newly hired DTR in charge of the cafeteria, you are asked to participate in a food safety program sponsored by the National Restaurant Association. The name of this program is: a. federal food safety program b. food safety certificate program c. iPura food safety d. ServSafe -
