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RCIS Exam Test Questions and Correct Answers (2024/2025), Exams of Nursing

Saint Joseph's University (SJU)Nursing

A comprehensive set of questions and answers related to the rcis exam, covering various aspects of cardiovascular interventions. It includes topics such as cardiac output calculation, hemodynamics, valvuloplasty, coronary interventions, and more. A valuable resource for students preparing for the rcis exam, offering insights into key concepts and potential exam questions.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 02/26/2025

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RCIS Exam Test Questions and Correct Answers (2024 /
2025) (Verified Answers)
1. What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?: CO= HR x SV
2. What is stroke volume related to?: preload
3. Preload is most impacted by.....: Increased filling volumes
4. A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate.....In-
creased afterload
5. Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by....: Radius of the vessel
6. The formula for BP is....: BP = CO x SVR
7. What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure indicates
Mitral insufficiency: V wave
8. An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology: RV infarct
9. If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be
demonstrat- ed in the physical assessment: JVD
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Download RCIS Exam Test Questions and Correct Answers (2024/2025) and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

RCIS Exam Test Questions and Correct Answers (2024 /

2025) (Verified Answers)

  1. What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?: CO= HR x SV
  2. What is stroke volume related to?: preload
  3. Preload is most impacted by.....: Increased filling volumes
  4. A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate.....In- creased afterload
  5. Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by....: Radius of the vessel
  6. The formula for BP is....: BP = CO x SVR
  7. What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure indicates Mitral insufficiency: V wave
  8. An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology: RV infarct
  9. If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrat- ed in the physical assessment: JVD
  1. What is the most common cause of Pulmonic stenosis: Congenital
  2. The Blue proximal part of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan: 30 cm 12. When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10 cc of saline into the and the temperature change is measured in the : RA, PA
  3. Equalization of RVEDP and LVEDP are found in: restrictive pericarditis
  4. Signs of Right sided heart failure include: JVD
  5. Based on these oxygen saturations, what type of shunt is present? SVC sat= 67% IVC sat= 71% RA sat= 85% RV sat= 85% PA sat= 85% LA sat= 98% LV sat= 98% AO sat= 98%: L to R ASD
  6. What type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum (the former site of the fossa ovalis) is called: Ostium Secundum
  7. What is the Flamm's equation: 3(SVC) + 1(IVC)/
  8. The formula used to calculate MAP is: 1 (systolic) + 2 (diastolic)/
  9. What are the four anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot: Pulmonic stenosis, over riding aorta, RVH, VSD
  1. What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the X- ray source: 6 feet
  2. In an X-ray tube what is the charge on the cathode and the anode: Cathode: positive Anode: negative
  3. Which view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radiation: Lat- eral
  4. What converts x-rays into an image: Image Intensifier
  5. The contrast that is best for a patient is: low osmolality
  6. Radiolucent means: X-rays are permitted to pass through
  7. Radiopaque means: X-rays are not permitted to pass through
  8. ReoPro works on: IIb/IIIa receptors
  9. Heparin potentiates the action of: Antithrombin
  10. Fibrinogen is converted to Fibrin by the action of: Thrombin
  11. There are known pathways to imitate the clotting cascade: 2
  12. Aspirin inhibits the action of: Arachidonic Acid
  1. Which agent is not an antiplatelet: Heparin
  2. If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give: fluids to hydrate 40. If a patient is taking NPH insulin, which medication should not be given: - Protamine
  3. Which medication is most commonly given to a patient with SVT: Adeno- sine 42. True/False If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4 contrast volume should be minimized: True
  4. Lidocaine converts from 2GM in 500cc to: 4 mg in 1 cc 44. Dopamine concentration 1600 mcg/ml in 250cc yields a concetration of: - 400 mg in 250cc 45. The best short acting medication/anxietolytic to sedate a patient is: - Versed/Midazolam
  5. The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is: NTG
  1. When performing an LV angiogram with the LV injector, what is the purpose of setting a "rate of rise": It makes for a smoother injection, less catheter whip, limits ectopy
  2. An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III, and AVF. What type of infarct would you suspect: inferior wall
  3. An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads V5, V6, Lead 1, and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded: Cx
  4. How do you test the defibrillator: discharge into the defibrillator (dummy load)
  5. What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the T Wave: You could put them into Vfib
  6. In 1st degree heart block, where is the conductive delay: AV node
  7. What is the normal PR interval: .12-.
  8. If a patient is attached to the monitor, V tach is rhythm, the patient has no pulse and is not responding, what should you do: Unsymchronized cardiover- sion
  1. If a patient is on a monitor in SVT, SBP is 70, the patient is diaphoretic, dusky and SOB. What should you do: Do immediate synchronized cardioversion
  2. A common complication of placing a pacing electrode/wire is: Perfora- tion/Preicardial Effusion/Tamponade
  3. A pacing generator that paces in both chambers, senses in the ventricle, and inhibits QRS complexes is a: DVI
  4. A pacing generator that paces both chambers, senses both chambers, and triggers or inhibits is a: DDD
  5. A pacing generator that paces in the atria, senses the atria, and inhibits pacing is a: AAI
  6. What is the formula for calculating SVR: Mean OR- Mean RA/CO
  7. Which cardiac output would be most accurate in a patient with tricuspid regurgitation: FICK
  8. Which right heart pressure best reflects LV preload: PCWP
  9. Which balloon is used for valvuloplasty: inoue
  1. Calculate the regurgitant fraction of a patient who has a thermal CO of 4.1L/min and an angiographic CO of 5.4L/min: 24%
  2. This patient has a cardiac output of 5.1L/min. Calculate the SVR of this patient with the following data Mean PA= 24 Mean RA= 5 Mean PCWP= 15 Mean AO= 95: 1411 dynec/sec/cm-
  3. If a patient has a pulsatile mass below the sheath site, and a bruit is a present, what should be suspected: Pseudoaneurysm
  4. An abdominal aortic pulsation greater than 3.0 cm can be a finding for what: Aortic aneurysm
  5. Back pain not relieved NTG, morphine or oxygen and not associated with EKG changes can indicate: Aortic dissection
  6. Which stent is self expanding: Wall stent
  7. A catheter has a diameter of 2.66mm. What French size is it: BFR 80. In relation to a coronary lesion where should the wire not be placed A. As distal as possible B. In the nearest side branch C. In a distal side branch

D. Proximal to the lesion E. All of the above: All of the above

  1. Which lesion is best addressed with a Rotoblador: Calcified
  2. Which catheter should be used to cannulate an LAD with a high take off: Amplatz
  3. Landmarks for an internal jugular approach include: Head of the sternocle- domastoid muscle and the clavicular head
  4. When performing a myocardial biopsy where are the tissue samples taken from: RV
  5. Hypokinetic means: decreased movement
  6. In the formula BP= HR x SV x Systematic Vascular Resistance, Dobutamie acts as an , to by increasing: Inotrope, increase stroke volume, contractility 87. Which of the following are Angiostensin Receptor Blockers (ARBS) A. Lisiopril B. Losartan C. Metoprolol
  1. If the patient complains of pain down the leg when attempting to cannulate the right femoral artery, which way do you move the needle: Medial
  2. Coronary arteries perfuse best during: Diastole
  3. What is the purpose of the IABP: Increased coronary perfusion, decreased afterload
  4. An IMA catheter most nearly resembles a: IR 4 94. What is the recommended rate of Burr rotation when using a Rotoblador- : 160,000-210,
  5. Overtightening of the Tuohy Borst will: prevent balloon inflation or deflation
  6. The best device for management of an acute thrombus in a vessel is: An- gioget
  7. Which device employs the use of sterile heperinilized saline to evacuate thrombus: Angioget
  8. What are the signs and symptoms of a retroperitoneal blood: back or

flank pain, drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, drop in Hgb and Hct

  1. Calcified lesions are best managed with which device: Cutting/scoring bal- loon
  2. When using a temporary pacer, where is the lead placed: RV
  3. When performing a myocardial biopsy post heart transplant, the biopsy is performed to evaluate: potential for rejection of the transplanted heart
  4. The drive to breath in a person with no respiratory diseases is: Elevated CO
  5. The drive to breath in a person with COPD is: Decreased O
  6. The greatest risk when performing myocardial biopsy is: Perforating of the RV
  7. When using the Rotoblador, when should the burr start rotating: just proximal to the lesion
  8. Akinetic meaans: no movement at all
  9. Dyskinetic means: disorganized movement
  1. The IABP catheter should be placed: above the renal artery and below the left subdivision
  2. Which of the following symptoms after the use of a closure device war- rants evaluation: loss of pulses in the foot
  3. If the heart rate slows, what happens to stroke volume: increases
  4. what happens to myocardial contractile force (dp/dt) when the heart rate slows down: Increases
  5. The Eustachian valve is located: between the inferior vena cava and the right atrium
  6. The Amplatzer Septal Occluder device is used to: Close a PFO
  7. Function of the percutamneous Impella: Evacuates 2.5 LPM from the LV; delivers it to the ascending aorta, improves CO, increases SV, improves coronary perfusion
  8. The head hunter catheter is used to visualize the: left and right ICA and ECA
  9. The fossa ovalis is located: between the RA and LA
  1. What is the most common cause of renal artery stenosis: Atherosclerosis
  2. Renal artery stenosis is most commonly found in the: proximal renal artery
  3. FFR measures: pressure distal to a stenosis 127. True/False when interpreting FFR, an FFR of .80 means that a stenosis causes a 20% drop in blood pressure distal to a lesion: True 128. True/False FFR expresses the maximal flow down a vessel in the presence of a stenosis compared to the maximal flow in the absence of a stenosis: True 129. True/False When considering FFR, values greater than .75-.80 indicate a non-significant stenosis and lower values indicate a significant stenosis: True 130. True/False When considering FFR, a significant stenosis (>70%) may yield an FFR >.80 if there is significant collateral flow to the vessel with the lesion in it: True

135. What is the NYHA classification of a patient on a ventricle assist device- : IV-Severe limitation of activity; symptomatic at rest

  1. A washer that is visulaized on fluoroscopy is placed to mark the: proximal vein graft
  2. An ABI measures the difference between the and pulses and a reading of indicates a flow limiting lesion: left brachial and left pedal; .
  3. Cannulation of the femoral artery should be: one finger breath below the inguinal fold 139. Choose the correct answers about a pseudo aneurysm (PSA) A. PSA occurs when an arterial puncture does not seal B. Pulsatile blood tracks into the perivascular space C. Blood is contained by the perivascular structure D. Takes on the appearance of a SAC E. Is the result of cannulating needle penetrating the anterior and posterior vessel walls F. All of the Above: All of the Above

140. Treatment of a PSA includes A. Thrombin injection into the SAC B. Ultrasound guided compression C. Surgical management D. All of the above: All of the above 141. PSA's occur most commonly when the puncture site is the (Choose all that apply) A. CFA B. SFA C. External iliac artery D.Given inadequate compression time: SFA, external iliac artery, given inade- quate compression time 142. Physical signs of PSA may include (Choose all that apply) A. Palpable pulsatile mass B. Presence of a systolic bruit C. Significant site pain D. Loss of pulse in the opposite legg: A. Palpable pulsatile mass B. Presence of a systolic bruit