Download Questions of 2021 year of geology subject of patna University and more Exams Geology in PDF only on Docsity!
Paper Specific Instructions
1. The examination is of 3 hours duration. There are a total of 6 0 questions carrying 100 marks. The entire paper is divided into three sections, A , B and C. All sections are compulsory. Questions in each section are of different types. 2. Section – A contains a total of 30 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ). Each MCQ type question has four choices out of which only one choice is the correct answer. Questions Q.1 – Q.30 belong to this section and carry a total of 50 marks. Q.1 – Q.10 carry 1 mark each and Questions Q.11 – Q.30 carry 2 marks each. 3. Section – B contains a total of 10 Multiple Select Questions (MSQ). Each MSQ type question is similar to MCQ but with a difference that there may be one or more than one choice(s) that are correct out of the four given choices. The candidate gets full credit if he/she selects all the correct answers only and no wrong answers. Questions Q.31 – Q.40 belong to this section and carry 2 marks each with a total of 20 marks. 4. Section – C contains a total of 20 Numerical Answer Type (NAT) questions. For these NAT type questions, the answer is a real number which needs to be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor. No choices will be shown for these type of questions. Questions Q.41 – Q.60 belong to this section and carry a total of 30 marks. Q.41 – Q.50 carry 1 mark each and Questions Q.5 1 – Q. 6 0 carry 2 marks each. 5. In all sections, questions not attempted will result in zero mark. In Section – A (MCQ), wrong answer will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, 1/3 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, 2/3 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer. In Section – B (MSQ), there is NO NEGATIVE and NO PARTIAL marking provisions. There is NO NEGATIVE marking in Section - C (NAT) as well. 6. Only Virtual Scientific Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, tables, cellular phone or other electronic gadgets are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 7. The Scribble Pad will be provided for rough work.
SECTION – A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)
Q. 1 – Q. 10 carry one mark each.
Q.1 Among the following rocks, the one with highest metamorphic grade is (A) chlorite schist (B) glaucophane schist (C) phyllite (D) gneiss Q.2 The Earth’s radius is maximum at which one of the following latitudes? (A) 0° (B) 40° N (C) 60° S (D) 90° Q.3 The closest value to the percentage of the Earth’s surface covered by the oceans is (A) 30% (B) 50% (C) 70% (D) 90% Q.4 Which is the shallowest among the marine environments listed below? (A) Neritic (B) Littoral (C) Abyssal (D) Bathyal
Q.9 The igneous body with dome or mushroom-like shape is known as a (A) lopolith (B) ring dike (C) sill (D) laccolith Q.10 Which one of the following stratigraphic units belongs to the Cretaceous? (A) Lameta Formation (B) Talchir Boulder Bed (C) Fenestella Shale (D) Kasauli Formation
Q. 11 – Q. 30 carry two marks each.
Q.11 Select the youngest volcanic event out of the following. (A) Rajmahal volcanics (B) Dalma volcanics (C) Panjal volcanics (D) Deccan volcanics Q.12 Which among the following is the only possible plunge for a lineation located on the foliation plane striking 20° N and dipping 40° southeasterly? (A) 20° SE (B) 20° NW (C) 45° SE (D) 40° NW
Q.13 Which one of the following tectonic plates has the maximum average velocity? (A) Eurasian (B) Pacific (C) African (D) North American Q.14 A limestone contains lime mud and around 25 % allochems, which are separated from each other. The name of the rock as per Dunham’s classification is (A) mudstone (B) wackestone (C) packstone (D) grainstone Q.15 Find the CORRECT statement out of the following. (A) Convolute laminae form by desiccation. (B) Load cast is an erosional structure. (C) Prod mark is found at the bottom of a bed. (D) Wave ripple occurs at the top of a turbidite deposit. Q.16 Which one of the following crystal forms DOES NOT belong to the di-tetragonal pyramidal class? (A) c-Pedion (B) Prism of 1st^ order (C) Di-tetragonal prism (D) Tetragonal dipyramid
Q.21 Select the answer that is a CORRECT match for the three types of unconformities. (Grey bands = sediments, [ + ] = igneous rock). P. Disconformity 1. Q. Non-conformity 2. R. Angular Unconformity 3. (A) P-2; Q-3; R- 1 (B) P- 2 ; Q-1; R- 3 (C) P-1; Q- 3 ; R- 2 (D) P- 3 ; Q- 2 ; R- 1 Q.22 Which one of the following statements is FALSE? (A) Ammonites have fluted septa. (B) Brachiopods have a pedicle. (C) Echinoids have genal spines. (D) Trilobites have a pygidium. Q.23 In the context of phylogeny of horses, the CORRECT chronological order from old to young is (A) Hyracotherium, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Equus (B) Hyracotherium, Merychippus, Mesohippus, Equus (C) Equus, Merychippus, Mesohippus, Hyracotherium (D) Merychippus, Equus, Mesohippus, Hyracotherium
Q.24 Choose the CORRECT match between items in Group I with the items in Group II. Group I Group II P. Polarity zone 1. Biostratigraphy Q. Formation 2. Chronostratigraphy R. Biozone 3. Magnetostratigraphy S. Epoch 4. Lithostratigraphy (A) P-1; Q-2; R-3; S- 4 (B) P-2; Q- 3 ; R-1; S- 4 (C) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S- 2 (D) P- 3 ; Q- 4 ; R-2; S- 1 Q.25 The following diagram represents the prograde sequence of metamorphic zones that develop during Buchan-type of metamorphism (<4 kbar) of typical pelites. Identify the zones labelled P, Q and R. (A) P - Biotite zone; Q - Garnet zone; R - Kyanite zone (B) P - Garnet zone; Q - Kyanite zone; R - Staurolite zone (C) P - Biotite zone; Q - Cordierite zone; R - Andalusite zone (D) P - Andalusite zone; Q - Biotite zone; R - Cordierite zone
Q.28 Match the environment representing physical geological processes in Group I with the corresponding geomorphic landform/feature in Group II. Group I Group II P. Aeolian 1. Drumlin Q. Glacial 2. Tombolo R. Fluvial 3. Yardang S. Coastal 4. Natural levee (A) P-2; Q-1; R- 4 ; S- 3 (B) P- 2 ; Q-4; R- 1 ; S- 3 (C) P-3; Q-1; R- 4 ; S- 2 (D) P-3; Q-4; R- 1 ; S- 2 Q.29 Match the items in Group I with the corresponding items in Group II. Group I Group II P. Chalcocite 1. Supergene enrichment Q. Bauxite 2. Mechanical accumulation R. Monazite placers 3. Magmatic crystallization S. Chromite 4. Residual processes (A) P-1; Q-4; R-2; S- 3 (B) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S- 1 (C) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S- 3 (D) P-1; Q- 3 ; R- 2 ; S- 4 Q.30 Which one of the following statements is FALSE? (A) Perched water table exists within the zone of aeration. (B) Juvenile water is derived from sediment diagenesis. (C) Zone of aeration lies above the zone of saturation. (D) Both aquiclude and aquifuge are impermeable.
SECTION - B
MULTIPLE SELECT QUESTIONS (MSQ)
Q. 31 – Q. 40 carry two marks each.
Q.31 Fossils from which of the following invertebrate classes show pentameral symmetry? (A) Echinoidea (B) Anthozoa (C) Cephalopoda (D) Trilobita Q.32 The attitude of the two limbs of a fold was measured as striking 4° N, dipping 85° easterly and striking 30° N, dipping 60° easterly. Which of the following is/are TRUE for describing the geometry of the fold? (A) Synform (B) Antiform (C) Overturned (D) Plunging Q.33 Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT regarding ophitic texture? (A) Plagioclase laths are completely enclosed by large pyroxene crystals. (B) Intergrowth occurs between quartz and alkali-feldspar. (C) It is a variety of poikilitic texture. (D) It is a texture observed in peridotite.
Q.37 Which among the following statement(s) is/are TRUE? (A) Attrition is more dominant in aeolian than in glacial environment. (B) Centrifugal force drives the sediment-laden water outward when the river channel meanders. (C) U-shaped valley is a common fluvial geomorphic feature. (D) The downstream water velocity in a river channel increases upward from the channel bed towards the water surface. Q.38 Which of the following statement(s) regarding hydrocarbon occurrence is/are CORRECT? (A) Gandhar field is in Cambay basin. (B) Oil and gas occur in Mesozoic reservoir rocks in Bombay High field. (C) Digboi field is in Assam basin. (D) Hydrocarbon occurs in limestone reservoir in Ankleshwar field. Q.39 Following are the statements regarding types of sandstone as per Pettijohn’s classification. Which is/are the CORRECT statement(s) out of the following? (A) Arkose contains more than 25% feldspar. (B) Greywacke contains more than 90% matrix. (C) Litharenite contains more than 25% lithic fragment. (D) Quartz arenite contains more than 95% quartz. Q.40 Choose the CORRECT statement(s) out of the following. (A) Shoreline shifts landward during transgression. (B) Shoreline shifts seaward during transgression. (C) Delta deposits preserve the record of transgression. (D) Incised river valley forms because of transgression.
SECTION – C
NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE (NAT)
Q. 41 – Q. 50 carry one mark each.
Q.41 The given section with uniform lithology and sedimentation rate records two ash layers dated at 77 Ma and 76 Ma, respectively. An index fossil species present in the lower part of the section becomes extinct at a horizon 7 m above the base. The estimated age of the extinction event is _________________ Ma. (Answer in integer). Q.42 A hollow discoid (cylindrical) microfossil has an outer diameter of 20 m, height 10 m and wall thickness 1 m. The internal volume that can be occupied by the organism is _______ m^3. (use = 3.14) (Round off to one decimal place). Q.43 In the following isobaric temperature-composition diagram, the number of common phases in all the invariant points is ____________. (Answer in integer). Q.44 A muscovite has the following composition in which iron is ferrous. The amount of ‘Al’ in the tetrahedral site is _____________ (per formula unit). (Round off to two decimal places). Muscovite composition: KAl2. 50 Fe0.25Si3.2 5 O 10 (OH) 2
Q.53 In a laboratory experiment, water discharge through a porous rock sample in 2 hours was 10 cm^3. The cylindrical rock sample is 10 cm long and has a diameter of 50 mm. If the discharge occurred at a constant head of 300 cm, the coefficient of permeability of the rock sample is _____ 10 −^6 cm/s. (Round off to two decimal places). Q.54 The following diagram represents a binary phase diagram for the system A–B at atmospheric pressure. If ‘X’ is the initial composition of melt, then the amount of melt that converts to solid when the magma cools from 1400 °C to 1250 °C is ____________ %. (Round off to two decimal places). Q.55 The following table shows modal abundance and mineral composition data of a plutonic igneous rock. The amount of SiO 2 in bulk composition of the rock is ____________ %. (Round off to two decimal places). Mineral Mode (%) SiO 2 (wt. %) CaO (wt. %) MgO (wt. %) Olivine 45 34 - 66 Clinopyroxene 35 55 25 20 Orthopyroxene 20 58 - 42 Q.56 Refer to the schematic sketch given (not to scale). Assume average saturated density of oceanic crustal rocks = 3200 kg/m^3 , density of ocean water = 1000 kg/m^3 , and acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s^2. The overburden pressure at a point (P) located 2 km below seabed and 4 km below the ocean surface is ________________ MPa. (Answer in integer).
If the indices of refraction of a uniaxial section are = 1.653 and = 1.544, and the retardation between the two rays is 550 nm, then the thickness of the section is _______ m. (Round off to two decimal places). Q.58 A crystal has lattice parameters of a : 4.26 Å, b : 10 Å and c : 3.44 Å, respectively. A plane intercepts on the a , b and c axes at 2.13 Å, 10 Å and 1.72 Å, respectively. The Miller Indices for the plane, written as an integer, is _____________(Answer in integer). Q.59 In the uvavorite garnet (Ca 3 +2Cr 2 +3Si 3 +4O 12 ), Ca is in cubic coordination, Cr is in octahedral coordination and Si is in tetrahedral coordination. The electrostatic bond strength of the Ca2+^ central ion is _______. (Round off to two decimal places). Q.60 In a structurally controlled fluvial setting, an asymmetric flight of river terraces T1, T2, T3 shown in the figure was sampled at location L1. The age of the sample at L1 was 30 ka (kiloyears). Assuming that the terraces were formed entirely due to deformation related uplift, the average uplift rate in the past 30 ka in the region was _______________ mm/yr. (Answer in integer).
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
Q.
