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NCCT Practice Exam with Rationales: A Comprehensive Guide to Medical Assisting, Exams of Nursing

A comprehensive practice exam for the ncct (national certified medical assistant) exam. It covers a wide range of topics relevant to medical assisting, including respiratory function, medical necessity, throat culture collection, medical billing, ekg interpretation, anatomy, visual acuity testing, specimen handling, laboratory testing, patient care, legal aspects of healthcare, and more. Each question is accompanied by a detailed rationale explaining the correct answer and why the other options are incorrect. This practice exam is a valuable resource for students preparing for the ncct exam, helping them to solidify their understanding of key concepts and practice their critical thinking skills.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 02/02/2025

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NCCT PRACTICE EXAM WITH RATIONALES – 3-hour PRACTICE EXAM!
1. Forced Vital Capacity is measured by instructing the patient to
A. forcefully breathe air out and continue to exhale for at least 6 seconds.
B. complete a minimum of eight acceptable efforts to validate the test.
C. move the one way valve to a minimum of 4000 ml capacity.
D. blow out as fast and hard as possible and document the highest
reading. Correct response:
forcefully breath air out and continue to exhale for at least 6 seconds.
Rationale: Respiratory tests are performed to assess and/or monitor lung function. A spirometer
measures how fast and how much air is pushed/forced out of the lungs. Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) is
measured by instructing the patient to forcefully breath air out and continue to exhale for at least 6
seconds. When doing spirometry testing, the total attempts should be limited to 8, not a minimum of 8.
The one way valve should not be moved to 4000 mL capacity. A patient should blow out as hard and fast
for as long as possible, and 3 acceptable attempts are documented to ensure test validity (not just the
highest reading).
2. Healthcare services for the evaluation and management of a disease consistent with the standard
of care are considered to be
A. V codes.
B. a medical necessity.
C. upcoding.
D. part of the audit
process. Correct response:
a medical necessity.
Rationale: A medically necessary healthcare service is generally the least invasive, most effective
treatment that is “reasonable and necessary” for the patient condition (i.e. standard of care). V codes
are used for non-injury or non-disease encounters (i.e. suture removal, infectious disease exposure,
etc.). Upcoding is the fraudulent act of submitting CPT codes for services that will reimburse at a higher
rate than the actual services provided. Part of the audit process is to help reduce fraud or unnecessary
treatment billed to insurance.
3. Which of the following techniques is correct when collecting a throat culture?
A. Depress the patient’s tongue and place the swab in a viral media tube following collection.
B. Insert swab into the nostril and rub against the turbinate to absorb mucous.
C. Use a tongue depressor and swab both sides of the throat.
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NCCT PRACTICE EXAM WITH RATIONALES – 3-hour PRACTICE EXAM!

  1. Forced Vital Capacity is measured by instructing the patient to A. forcefully breathe air out and continue to exhale for at least 6 seconds. B. complete a minimum of eight acceptable efforts to validate the test. C. move the one way valve to a minimum of 4000 ml capacity. D. blow out as fast and hard as possible and document the highest reading. Correct response: forcefully breath air out and continue to exhale for at least 6 seconds. Rationale: Respiratory tests are performed to assess and/or monitor lung function. A spirometer measures how fast and how much air is pushed/forced out of the lungs. Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) is measured by instructing the patient to forcefully breath air out and continue to exhale for at least 6 seconds. When doing spirometry testing, the total attempts should be limited to 8, not a minimum of 8. The one way valve should not be moved to 4000 mL capacity. A patient should blow out as hard and fast for as long as possible, and 3 acceptable attempts are documented to ensure test validity (not just the highest reading).
  2. Healthcare services for the evaluation and management of a disease consistent with the standard of care are considered to be A. V codes. B. a medical necessity. C. upcoding. D. part of the audit process. Correct response: a medical necessity. Rationale: A medically necessary healthcare service is generally the least invasive, most effective treatment that is “reasonable and necessary” for the patient condition (i.e. standard of care). V codes are used for non-injury or non-disease encounters (i.e. suture removal, infectious disease exposure, etc.). Upcoding is the fraudulent act of submitting CPT codes for services that will reimburse at a higher rate than the actual services provided. Part of the audit process is to help reduce fraud or unnecessary treatment billed to insurance.
  3. Which of the following techniques is correct when collecting a throat culture? A. Depress the patient’s tongue and place the swab in a viral media tube following collection. B. Insert swab into the nostril and rub against the turbinate to absorb mucous. C. Use a tongue depressor and swab both sides of the throat.

D. Swab both sides of the mouth, tongue, and nasopharnyx. Correct response: Use a tongue depressor and swab both sides of the throat. Rationale: To ensure an adequate sample of secretions is obtained from both tonsils and the back of throat, a tongue depressor is used and both sides of the throat are swabbed. A viral media tube would not be necessary, and the swab wouldn’t go into the nostril or touch the tongue or sides of the mouth since a throat culture is what is needed.

  1. The primary care provider hands the medical assistant a referral for a patient to get an MRI. Which of the following should the medical assistant do first? A. Call the facility and schedule the MRI. B. Call the insurance company and process an authorization. C. Fax pertinent medical records to the facility. D. Document the precertification number in the patient’s chart. Correct response: Call the insurance company and process an authorization. Rationale: An MRI can be a pricey procedure. Patients definitely don't want to pay any more than they should. A medical assistant should call the insurance company and get an authorization before sending the patient for the procedure. Once authorization is obtained, then the precertification number should be documented on the patient's chart. The MRI facility can then be called to schedule the procedure; patient chart information can be faxed, if necessary, at that time.
  2. The pictured rhythm is an example of which of the following? A. atrial flutter B. premature ventricular contraction C. sinus bradycardia

Rationale: Average distance visual acuity is 20/20 vision, meaning the eye should see an object at 20ft. away. Ex. Having 20/40 vision means the patient must be at 20 feet to see what a person with normal vision can see at 40 feet.

  1. The physician excises a mole and wants to send it to the pathology laboratory for further analysis. The sample should be placed with care into which of the following collection containers? A. sterile specimen container with formalin B. sterile swab collection and transport system C. sterile test tube with anticoagulant D. sterile Thin-PrepTM collection container Correct response: sterile specimen container with formalin Rationale: The sample would be contained according to the guidelines provided by the laboratory doing the testing (depending on which testing the physician wants to do on the sample). In this scenario, the mole would be placed in medium to preserve the tissue and inhibit growth of undesirable microorganisms (so a sterile container with formalin would be the best choice). A sterile swab collection container would be utilized if the physician wanted to culture the area around the mole, but not for containing the actual mole. A sterile test tube with anticoagulant would be used to collect a blood sample. The Thin-Prep media is generally used for pap smears and similar specimens, not for moles.
  2. The physician has ordered a blood test to evaluate a patient for a possible diagnosis of MI. Which of the following laboratory results are likely to be elevated? A. PSA B. HgbA1C C. T D. CK Correct response: CK Rationale: When a patient is suffering from a myocardial infarction, the creatinine kinase (CK) levels in the body will be elevated within 3 hours of the beginning of the chest pain. This lab result will likely be able to tell whether or not the patient is suffering from a myocardial infarction. The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test is mainly used to screen for prostate cancer and would not be able to detect a myocardial infarction. The HgbA1C is a test that measures the amount of glucose in the blood over a long period of time. It is mainly used for patients with diabetes to accurately determine if treatment is working because it shows the average blood sugar concentration over a period of time instead of just

one fasting blood glucose reading. The T4 (thyroxin) level refers to a hormone that is produced by the thyroid gland and is done to see how well the thyroid is functioning. This would also not accurately detect a myocardial infarction like the CK level would.

  1. An established patient who has Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease is evaluated in the medical office for hypertension. What is the importance of identifying the reason for today’s visit related to billing? A. to determine the primary diagnosis B. to ensure a secondary diagnosis is not listed on the claim form C. to assign a two-digit modifier D. to assign a V code Correct response: to determine the primary diagnosis Rationale: In this example, hypertension should be listed as the primary diagnosis (main reason the patient sought care for visit) and COPD as secondary (this will disease will be considered when medications are prescribed for HTN.)
  2. Alprazolan (Xanax) would be prescribed to a patient experiencing A. anxiety. B. dementia. C. IBS. D. hypertension. Correct response: Anxiety Rationale: Xanax is used for reducing anxiety and induces calmness in a patient. Dementia is a brain disorder, IBS (Irritable Bowel Syndrome) is a gastrointestinal disorder, and hypertension refers to high blood pressure.
  3. A tort involving an open threat or attempt to do bodily harm to another is known as which of the following? A. battery B. assault
  1. The medical assistant is collecting a urine sample on a patient to test for pregnancy. Which of the following is the correct CLIA-waived test? A. hgb B. hCG C. FBG D. hct Correct response: hCG Rationale: The medical assistant would test the hCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotropin) levels to test for pregnancy. This hormone is produced during pregnancy by cells in the placenta and can be detected by a urine test. To test hgb (hemoglobin) levels, a blood sample is taken to determine how much oxygen is being carried by red blood cells. Since a pregnancy test is taken using a urine sample, a hemoglobin test would not be necessary. Fasting Blood Glucose (FBG) levels are also tested using a blood sample, and used to determine how much sugar is in the blood. Hematocrit (hct) is also a blood sample that shows how many red blood cells there are in proportion to the total blood volume.
  2. Which of the following is a CLIA waived test that can be performed by the medical assistant? A. differential B. chemical urinalysis C. Gram stain analysis D. crossmatch Correct response: chemical urinalysis Rationale: A medical assistant can perform a chemical urinalysis test, which shows if the patient has protein or glucose in their urine, but would require intervention by the primary care provider. A chemical urinalysis can also tell what the specific gravity of the urine, meaning how diluted or concentrated it is. The test is done with a small dipstick that changes color when it comes into contact with urine. The medical assistant then compares the stick to a chart to see what is in the urine and if anything is abnormal. A differential is done by a laboratory technician. It is done by drawing blood and then placing the blood on a glass slide to look for any signs of infection or anemia. A Gram stain analysis is also done in the lab under a microscope when a bacterial or viral infection is suspected. Cross- matching is a test administered before a blood transfusion to ensure the donor’s blood is compatible with the recipient. This test is performed by a certified laboratory technologist.
  1. A clean-catch midstream urinalysis is ordered for a female patient to rule out a urinary tract infection. The medical assistant should instruct the patient before urinating in the specimen cup to wipe using antiseptic towelettes A. from front to back. B. from back to front. C. in concentric circles. D. back and forth. Correct response: from front to back. Rationale: The patient should be instructed to always wipe from front to back to prevent infection. When a patient wipes from back to front, in circles, or back and forth, germs from the rectum can be spread to the hand and the urethra. This can get into the urinary tract and cause infections, so it is extremely important that the patient knows to always wipe from front to back.
  2. When reviewing a patient’s SOAP note in the medical record, which of the following documentation entries is an example of objective data? A. Patient reports stabbing pain in the RUQ after meals. B. Generalized pruritis following detergent brand change yesterday. C. 10 mm laceration noted above the left eye. D. Patient complains of fatigue and low energy levels. Correct response: 10 mm laceration noted above the left eye. Rationale: The SOAP note method (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan) is a charting system. The Objective notes are based on measurable signs, observable facts or data (such as a 10 mm laceration noted above the left eye). Subjective notes cover the chief complaint of the patient and other details of condition: reports stabbing pain in the RUQ after meals, complains of fatigue and low energy levels, or generalized pruritis following detergent brand change yesterday. Assessment is basically the doctor's diagnosis for that visit. Plan refers to the treatment plan (further testing, referrals, medications, etc.).
  3. Which of the following charts should the medical assistant use to assess color blindness? A. Ishihara B. Snellen C. Jaeger

Correct response: purchase order Rationale: For authorization and expense documentation of transaction.

  1. The medical assistant receives a call from an attorney requesting information about an established patient’s operative report. Which of the following actions is required prior to fulfilling the request? A. Call the patient to request verbal consent. B. Check the patient’s file for authorization of release of information listing the name of the attorney. C. Ask for the name and number of the attorney and return the call to confirm the identity of the caller. D. Refer the call to be handled by the physician directly to prevent liability. Correct response: Check the patient’s file for authorization of release of information listing the name of the attorney. Rationale: Written authorization is required for release of protected health information. Before releasing any information, it is important to check the patient’s file for authorization of release of information listing the name of the attorney. If the attorney is indeed listed on the signed release authorization (verbal consent is not acceptable), it would then be necessary to confirm the identification of the caller. Once identification is confirmed, information could be given according to health care provider policy.
  2. The adult patient has a puncture wound on the sole of the right foot due to stepping on a nail in a construction area. Which of the following immunizations is particularly important for the medical assistant to ask about while taking the patient’s history? A. HepB B. Td C. PCV D. DTaP Correct response: Td Rationale: Td = Tetanus booster recommended every 10 years. If a person has a deep or contaminated wound, a booster may be prescribed if it has been more than 5 years since the last dose. DTaP series is completed during the childhood immunization schedule. Adults should receive a one-time dose of Tdap if they have not received a previous dose. Tetanus is a neuromuscular disease, also known as lockjaw, preventable with immunization.
  1. The medical assistant preps the median cubital vein for a venipuncture procedure. How should the medical assistant prep the patient’s skin? A. Use a circular motion, from the inside out. B. Use a circular motion, from the outside in. C. Wipe the area from top to bottom. D. Wipe the area from bottom to top. Correct response: Use a circular motion, from the inside out. Rationale: A venipuncture is considered a minimally invasive procedure. The fact that the skin will be punctured leaves open the potential to introduce an infection. Therefore, proper care should be taken to minimize the risk of contamination (of the sample) and infection (to the patient). Prep the puncture site with an alcohol pad or equivalent by using a circular motion, from the inside out. A basic rule of thumb is to use a “clean to dirty” approach. The circular motion is the appropriate prepping motion (instead of up and down or side to side).
  2. Which of the following indicators is considered a positive skin reaction to scratch allergy testing? A. excessive bleeding B. formation of a red wheal C. bruised appearance D. hemangioma formation Correct response: formation of a red wheal Rationale: Hives, which are small, round raised areas on the skin (a.k.a. wheals; often red or white in color), are triggered by the body's inflammatory response (a.k.a. reaction). Itching may also be present. The purpose of allergy testing is to determine specific substances that cause an allergic reaction. Excessive bleeding and/or bruising (hemangioma formation) can indicate issues outside the immune response.
  3. The medical assistant performs a urine hCG on a patient whose results are inconclusive. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take next? A. Ask the patient to clarify the date of her LMP. B. Draw a blood specimen for hCG testing. C. Collect another urine sample.

Rationale: Atrophy, which is the wasting away of a muscle, occurs with prolonged lack of muscle use. This decrease in muscle mass (progressive wasting appearance) is often seen in patients with severe illness, the elderly, or with prolonged immobilization. Hypertrophy is the opposite of atrophy and is the increase in muscle size, tendonitis is the inflammation of the tendons, and cellulitis is a skin infection.

  1. A patient is discharged from the hospital with a diagnosis of HIV and MRSA and comes to the office for a follow-up appointment. What is the best method the medical assistant could use to clean the nasal speculum, forceps, and hemostat used in the exam? A. chemical sterilization B. disinfect with 70% isopropyl alcohol C. disinfect with sodium hypochlorite (1:10) D. steam sterilization Correct response: steam sterilization Rationale: All of the instruments here can be cleaned a number of ways (sanitized, disinfected, and sterilized). Steam sterilization (high pressure saturated steam in an autoclave) would be the best way to ensure removal of all HIV/MRSA from the instruments. This will properly sterilize the instruments without subjecting them to harsh chemicals. Other medical equipment (i.e. an endoscope) that is not suitable for the autoclave and must be cleaned based on manufacturer's instructions and office protocol. These instruments could be disinfected using a 1:10 sodium hypochlorite solution (a.k.a. bleach). Bleach is considered safe to use on medical equipment (though it may pit some metals) and is widely used in hospitals and clinics to disinfect supplies and counter tops. MRSA and HIV are both susceptible to the proper dilution of bleach. However, it is very important to maintain proper contact time between the bleach and instrument surfaces (or else residual bacteria and virus could be left behind to infect others). Ethyl alcohol has been shown to inactivate HIV, but isopropyl alcohol has not (making it an inadequate option in this situation). Chemicals may be effective for disinfection and sterilization, but in turn can be harsh on instruments. The length of time instruments must remain immersed in a chemical (i.e. 10 hours for Cidex disinfectant) may create a potential for damage to the instruments over time. Chemicals are highly effective and have a definite use in a medical facility, but the best answer in this case is steam sterilization.
  2. Which of the following conditions may occur if a tourniquet is left in place on a patient’s extremity for longer than 60 seconds? A. venous stasis B. venous insufficiency C. hemolytic anemia

D. hemangioma Correct response: venous stasis Rationale: A tourniquet lef t in place for longer than 60 seconds predisposes the formation of blood clots due to slow blood flow (a.k.a. venous stasis). Venous insufficiency (VI) is a state in which the veins do not adequately send the blood from the extremities back to the heart. Hemolytic anemia refers to a condition defined by red blood cell destruction, which leads to an overall reduction of healthy red blood cells left to circulate and deliver oxygen throughout the body. Hemangioma is a term used to describe a condition in which blood vessels abnormally congregate in a place on the body, causing a non- cancerous tumor.

  1. A parent calls the pediatrician’s office very upset because her child is vomiting and has a temperature of 103.3 F. The medical assistant should A. schedule a same day work-in appointment. B. place the parent on hold and transfer the call to the physician. C. instruct the parent to take the child to the emergency room immediately. D. suggest an over the counter anti- pyretic. Correct response: schedule a same day work-in appointment. Rationale: A child presenting with a high fever is an acute situation. In this case, it is best to work the child in for an appointment that same day. Treatment should be started as soon as possible to minimize the side effects brought on by a high fever.
  2. The medical assistant reviews instructions with the patient with hypertension about techniques to manage this condition at home. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates teaching has been successful? (Select all that apply.) A. “I will take prescribed medications regularly at the same time each day.” B. “I will monitor my blood pressure and record readings daily.” C. “I will increase salt intake in my diet.” D. “I will incorporate moderate exercise into my daily routine.” E. “I will check my blood sugar regularly.” Correct response:

diabetes mellitus, however, it is not typically a symptom of diabetes mellitus. Pruritus (itching) is also not associated with diabetes mellitus.

  1. A patient’s encounter form contributes to the efficiency and flow of information in the medical office at check-out in which of the following ways? A. Provides written documentation about medications prescribed during the visit. B. Outlines discharge instructions related to the patient’s condition. C. Lists codes for services and procedures performed during the visit. D. Summarizes limitations and exclusions in the patient’s insurance policy. Correct response: Lists codes for services and procedures performed during the visit. Rationale: An encounter form can be a preprinted form that must be updated annually to reflect current codes for reimbursement. The encounter form is commonly referred to as a superbill or charge slip in the medical office. A form would be issued during each visit (encounter) and would provide a place to record the codes for services and procedures performed during that visit. It won't necessarily include insurance policy explanations, medications, or discharge instructions.
  2. An individual who is being sued is referred to as the A. plaintiff. B. guardian ad litem. C. defendant. D. prosecutor. Correct response: defendant. Rationale: The person being charged with a crime is referred to as the defendant. The plaintif f is the person who is suing the defendant, the guardian ad litem is someone who is appointed by the court to defend and speak for someone who is incapable of speaking for themselves. A prosecutor is a lawyer who is defending the plaintiff, or person suing.
  3. The symptoms of fever, lower back pain, dysuria, and hematuria are most likely associated with which of the following conditions? A. TIA

Rationale: An Explanation of Benefits (EOB) is a document from the insurance company to the patient

B. UTI

C. COPD

D. CHF

Correct response: UTI Rationale: Urinary tract infection (UTI) can occur in the lower and upper portions of the urinary tract. Burning and frequent urination, accompanied by strong odor, blood and cloudiness are all common indicators that an infection may be present. Pelvic and lower back pain are commonly reported by patients who are experiencing a UTI.

  1. The medical assistant demonstrates proper handling of sharps containers by doing which of the following? A. Discard the sharps container in a biohazard waste container when it is two-thirds full. B. Inspect the sharps container to ensure that only sharps have been deposited. C. Seal the sharps container and place in the regular waste container. D. Empty half full sharps containers into a larger container to maintain cost effectiveness. Correct response: Discard the sharps container in a biohazard waste container when it is two-thirds full. Rationale: Sharps containers hold sharp biohazardous materials and must be sealed and incinerated upon disposal. OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) mandates that sharps containers be replaced on a routine basis and not be overfilled. Discard sharps containers before they are full to prevent overfilling, which could result in accidental injury or exposure from overflow.
  2. When posting an insurance payment via an EOB, the amount that is considered contractual is A. the insurance allowed amount. B. the NON-PAR payment allowable. C. the insurance adjustment. D. the patient responsibility. Correct response: the insurance adjustment. that includes detailed information regarding a claim that was paid to the health care provider. Once a

mode of infection refers to how infectious diseases are spread: by contact, by vehicle, by vector, and by inhalation. The infectious agent enters a susceptible host through a portal of entry.

  1. Which of the following resources should the medical assistant use to look up the code for a laceration repair? A. International Classification of Disease B. Physician’s Desk Reference C. Healthcare Common Procedural Coding System D. Current Procedural Terminology Correct response: Current Procedural Terminology Rationale: A laceration repair would be found in the CPT code book. Current Procedural Terminology identifies services and procedures. International Classification of Diseases (ICD) identifies diagnoses. Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) – identifies additional services and procedures not listed in CPT; drugs dispensed in the physician’s office or other facility (including injectables, topicals, and orally administered); supplies and equipment dispensed to the patient. The Physicians Desk Reference is a publication that compiles drug information for medical professionals and consumers alike.
  2. The patient lost her bottle of medication, but found one pill in the bottom of her purse. Which of the following references would allow the medical assistant to determine what kind of medication it is by looking at the pill? A. PDR B. MSDS C. Poison Control Center D. HCPC Correct response: PDR Rationale: The PDR, or Physician’s Desk Reference, provides information about medications, their functions, contraindications, etc. The PDR contains colored pictures of thousands of drugs. The medical assistant would be able to look up the picture of the pill found in the patient’s purse to determine if it is the correct pill the patient should be taking. A material safety data sheet (MSDS) provides information about how to safely manage chemicals and prevent injuries. The Poison Control Center gives information about how to avoid exposure to poisonous substances and how to treat exposure that does occur. The Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) is a system of healthcare codes put in place to

ensure insurance claims are handled correctly. Since this system works with insurance and healthcare