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Human Reproduction: MCQ on Meiosis, Mitosis, Fertilization & Implantation, Exams of Nursing

Western Washington University (WWU)Nursing

A comprehensive set of multiple choice questions and answers covering key concepts in human reproduction. topics include meiosis and mitosis, gametogenesis, fertilization, and implantation. the questions are designed to test understanding of the processes involved in human reproduction and are suitable for university or high school students studying biology or related fields. detailed explanations are provided for each answer, enhancing learning and comprehension.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 05/02/2025

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OB test bank questions TEST 3
Chapters 10, 11, and 12
1) The nurse is explaining the difference between meiosis and mitosis. Which statements would be best?
Select all that apply.
1. Meiosis is the division of a cell into two exact copies of the original cell.
2. Mitosis is splitting one cell into two, each with half the chromosomes of the original cell.
3. Meiosis is a type of cell division by which gametes, or the sperm and ova, reproduce.
4. Mitosis occurs in only a few cells of the body.
5. Meiotic division leads to cells that halve the original genetic material.
Answer: 3, 5
Explanation:
3. Meiosis is a special type of cell division by which diploid cells give rise to gametes (sperm and ova).
5. Meiosis creates two cells that contain half the genetic material of the parent cell.
2) The nurse is preparing a class on reproduction. What is the cell division process that results in two
identical cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell called?
1. Meiosis
2. Mitosis
3. Oogenesis
4. Gametogenesis
Answer: 2
Explanation: 2. Mitosis results in the production of diploid body (somatic) cells, which are exact copies of
the original cell.
3) The nurse educator is discussing human chromosomes with her students, and knows that the
teaching has been effective when a student makes which statement?
1. All humans have 48 chromosomes and 2 sex chromosomes.
2. Human chromosomes are shaped like a Y.
3. Humans have 46 chromosomes, 2 of which are the sex chromosomes.
4. Only certain body cells contain the chromosomes.
Answer: 3
Explanation: 3. This is the correct answer. There are 22 pairs of similar cells and 2 sex chromosomes.
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OB test bank questions TEST 3 Chapters 10, 11, and 12

  1. The nurse is explaining the difference between meiosis and mitosis. Which statements would be best? Select all that apply.
  1. Meiosis is the division of a cell into two exact copies of the original cell.
  2. Mitosis is splitting one cell into two, each with half the chromosomes of the original cell.
  3. Meiosis is a type of cell division by which gametes, or the sperm and ova, reproduce.
  4. Mitosis occurs in only a few cells of the body.
  5. Meiotic division leads to cells that halve the original genetic material. Answer: 3, 5 Explanation:
  6. Meiosis is a special type of cell division by which diploid cells give rise to gametes (sperm and ova).
  7. Meiosis creates two cells that contain half the genetic material of the parent cell.
  1. The nurse is preparing a class on reproduction. What is the cell division process that results in two identical cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell called?
  1. Meiosis
  2. Mitosis
  3. Oogenesis
  4. Gametogenesis Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Mitosis results in the production of diploid body (somatic) cells, which are exact copies of the original cell.
  1. The nurse educator is discussing human chromosomes with her students, and knows that the teaching has been effective when a student makes which statement?
  1. All humans have 48 chromosomes and 2 sex chromosomes.
  2. Human chromosomes are shaped like a Y.
  3. Humans have 46 chromosomes, 2 of which are the sex chromosomes.
  4. Only certain body cells contain the chromosomes. Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. This is the correct answer. There are 22 pairs of similar cells and 2 sex chromosomes.
  1. The nurse is teaching about reproduction, and explains that which of the following are the purposes of meiosis? Select all that apply.
  1. Produce gametes
  2. Reduce the number of chromosomes
  3. Introduce genetic variability
  4. Produce cells for growth and development
  5. Divide somatic cells into new cells with identical characteristics Answer: 1, 2, 3 Explanation:
  6. Meiosis is a special type of cell division by which diploid cells give rise to gametes (sperm and ova).
  7. The cells contain half the genetic material of the parent cellonly 23 chromosomesthe haploid number of chromosomes.
  8. During meiosis new combinations of cells are provided by the newly formed chromosomes; these combinations account for the wide variation of traits.
  1. The nurse has completed a presentation on reproduction. Which statement indicates that the teaching has been successful?
  1. A male is born with all the sperm he will ever produce.
  2. Females create new ova throughout their reproductive life.
  3. Ova separate into two unequally sized cells.
  4. Each primary spermatocyte divides into four haploid cells. Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. The first meiotic division produces two cells of unequal size with different amounts of cytoplasm but with the same number of chromosomes.
  1. During a class on genetics for pregnant families, the nurse is discussing the how the egg and sperm are formed before fertilization takes place. The nurse explains that these cells have only half the number of chromosomes, so when fertilization takes place, there will be the correct number. What is the process by which the egg and sperm are formed called?
  1. Oogenesis

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. It will take at least 3 days for the egg to reach the uterus is the correct statement.

  1. The nurse explains to a preconception class that if only a small volume of sperm is discharged into the vagina, an insufficient quantity of enzymes might be released when they encounter the ovum. In that case, pregnancy would probably not result, because of which of the following?
  1. Peristalsis of the fallopian tube would decrease, making it difficult for the ovum to enter the uterus.
  2. The block to polyspermy (cortical reaction) would not occur.
  3. The fertilized ovum would be unable to implant in the uterus.
  4. Sperm would be unable to penetrate the zona pellucida of the ovum. Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. About a thousand acrosomes must rupture to clear enough hyaluronic acid for even a single sperm to penetrate the ovums zona pellucida successfully. If only a small amount of sperm were released, there most likely would be an insufficient quantity of acrosomes to penetrate the zona pellucida of the ovum and allow fertilization.
  1. The nurse is creating a handout on reproduction for teen clients. Which piece of information should the nurse include in this handout?
  1. The fertilized ovum is called a gamete.
  2. Prior to fertilization, the sperm are zygotes.
  3. Ova survive 12-24 hours in the fallopian tube if not fertilized.
  4. Sperm survive in the female reproductive tract up to a week. Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Ova are considered fertile for about 12 to 24 hours after ovulation.
  1. A pregnant woman tells the nurse-midwife, Ive heard that if I eat certain foods during my pregnancy, the baby will be a boy. The nurse-midwifes response should explain that this is a myth, and that the sex of the baby is determined at what time?
  1. At the time of ejaculation
  2. At fertilization
  3. At the time of implantation
  4. At the time of differentiation

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Fertilization is the point at which the sex of the zygote is determined.

  1. The true moment of fertilization occurs when what happens?
  1. Cortical reaction occurs
  2. Nuclei unite
  3. Spermatozoa propel themselves up the female tract
  4. Sperm surrounding the ovum release their enzymes Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. The true moment of fertilization occurs as the nuclei unite. Their individual nuclear membranes disappear, and their chromosomes pair up to produce the diploid zygote.
  1. The nurse is teaching a group of adolescents that sperm must undergo the process of capacitation in order to fertilize the ova. The characteristics of sperm that have undergone capacitation include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply.
  1. Ability to undergo an acrosomal reaction
  2. Ability to block polyspermy
  3. Ability to bind to the zona pellucida
  4. Ability to release norepinephrine
  5. Acquisition of hypermotility Answer: 1, 3, 5 Explanation: 1. Sperm that undergo capacitation take on the ability to undergo the acrosomal reaction.
  6. Sperm that undergo capacitation take on the ability to bind to the zona pellucida.
  7. Sperm that undergo capacitation have the acquisition of hypermotility.
  1. Student nurses in their obstetrical rotation are learning about fertilization and implantation. The process of implantation is characterized by which statements? Select all that apply.
  1. A client tells you that her mother was a twin, two of her sisters have twins, and several cousins either are twins or gave birth to twins. The client, too, is expecting twins. Because there is a genetic predisposition to twins in her family, there is a good chance that the client will have what type of twins?
  1. Dizygotic twins
  2. Monozygotic twins
  3. Identical twins
  4. Nonzygotic twins Answer: 1 Explanation:
  5. Studies indicate that dizygotic twins tend to occur in certain families, perhaps because of genetic factors that result in elevated serum gonadotropin levels leading to double ovulation.
  1. The nurse is caring for a client pregnant with twins. Which statement indicates that the client needs additional information?
  1. Because both of my twins are boys, I know that they are identical.
  2. If my twins came from one fertilized egg that split, they are identical.
  3. If I have one boy and one girl, I will know they came from two eggs.
  4. It is rare for both twins to be within the same amniotic sac. Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Not all same-sex twins are identical or monozygotic, because fraternal, or dizygotic, twins can be the same gender or different genders.
  1. Which statement by a pregnant client to the nurse would indicate that the client understood the nurses teaching?
  1. Because of their birth relationship, fraternal twins are more similar to each other than if they had been born singly.
  2. Identical twins can be the same or different sex.
  3. Congenital abnormalities are more prevalent in identical twins.
  4. Identical twins occur more frequently than fraternal twins. Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Monozygotic twinning is considered a random event and occurs in approximately 3 to 4

per 1000 live births. Congenital anomalies are more prevalent and both twins may have the same malformation.

  1. A woman pregnant with twins asks the nurse about differences between identical and fraternal twins. The nurse explains that since it has been determined that she is having a boy and a girl, they are fraternal, and will have with of the following?
  1. One placenta, two amnions, and two chorions
  2. Two placentas, two amnions, and two chorions
  3. Two placentas, one amnion, and two chorions
  4. Two placentas, two amnions, one chorion Answer: 2 Explanation:
  5. This is the correct answer. Fraternal twins have two placentas, two amnions, and two chorions, however, the placentas sometimes fuse and look as if they are one.
  1. The nurse educator is teaching student nurses what a fetus will look like at various weeks of development. Which descriptions would be typical of a fetus at 20 weeks gestation? Select all that apply.
  1. The fetus has a body weight of 435-465 g.
  2. Nipples appear over the mammary glands.
  3. The kidneys begin to produce urine.
  4. Nails are present on fingers and toes.
  5. Lanugo covers the entire body. Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5 Explanation:
  6. A fetus at 20 weeks gestation has a body weight of 435-465 g.
  7. A fetus at 20 weeks gestation has nipples appear over the mammary glands.
  8. A fetus at 20 weeks gestation nails are present on fingers and toes.
  9. A fetus at 20 weeks gestation has lanugo that covers the entire body.
  1. The nurse is working with a client who has experienced a fetal death in utero at 20 weeks. The client asks what her baby will look like when it is delivered. Which statement by the nurse is best?
  1. The eighth week
  2. The twelfth week Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. By the end of the fourth week, embryonic blood is circulating between the embryo and the chorionic villi.
  1. A pregnant client at 28 weeks gestation asks the nurse what her baby is like at this stage of pregnancy. How would the nurse describe the fetus? Select all that apply.
  1. The fetus is developing subcutaneous fat.
  2. The fetus is now opening and closing her eyes.
  3. The baby could now breathe on her own, if she were born.
  4. The fetus has fingernails and toenails.
  5. The fetus is forming surfactant needed for lung function. Answer: 2, 3, 5 Explanation:
  6. At 28 weeks, the eyes begin to open and close.
  7. At 28 weeks, the delivered baby can breathe.
  8. At 28 weeks, the fetus has the surfactant formed needed for breathing.
  1. The nurse is holding a class for newly pregnant couples, and discussing good and bad influences on their developing babies. Prenatal influences on the intrauterine environment include which of the following? Select all that apply.
  1. The use of saunas or hot tubs
  2. The use of drugs
  3. The quality of the sperm or ovum
  4. Maternal nutrition
  5. Vitamins and folic acid Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5 Explanation:
  6. The use of saunas or hot tubs is associated with maternal hyperthermia. Studies of the effects of maternal hyperthermia during the first trimester have raised concern about possible spontaneous

abortion, central nervous system (CNS) defects, and failure of neural tube closure.

  1. The use of drugs can have teratogenic effects.
  2. Maternal nutrition affects brain and neural tube development.
  3. Vitamins and folic acid supplements taken before conception can reduce the incidence of neural tube defects.
  1. The client at 20 weeks gestation thinks she might have been exposed to a toxin at work that could affect fetal development. The client asks the nurse what organs might be affected at this point in pregnancy. What is the nurses best response?
  1. The brain is developing now, and could be affected.
  2. Because you are in the second trimester, there is no danger.
  3. The internal organs like the heart and lungs could be impacted.
  4. Its best to not worry about possible problems with your baby. Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Maximum brain growth and myelination are occurring at this point in fetal development.
  1. The nurse educator is presenting a program to college students about factors that can cause congenital malformations. What should the nurse tell them?
  1. The growing embryo is considered most vulnerable to hazardous agents during the first months of pregnancy.
  2. Spontaneous abortion always occurs if the fetus is affected by a teratogen.3. Potential teratogens can cause malformations of the heart, limbs, eyes, and other organ systems only in the second trimester.
  3. Teratogen agents are primarily drugs. Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. This is true. Because organs are formed primarily during embryonic development, the growing embryo is considered most vulnerable to hazardous agents during the first months of pregnancy.
  1. The nurse is teaching the significance of good nutrition on fetal development to a group of young women. What factors will the nurse discuss? Select all that apply.
  1. Estrogen
  2. Progesterone Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Progesterone is a hormone essential for pregnancy. After the 11th week, the placenta produces enough progesterone and estrogen to maintain pregnancy.
  1. The nurse teaching the expectant parents about the placenta also talks about the circulation and how the fetus gets its oxygen. She will include in this teaching which important fact?
  1. The placenta functions as the lungs for the fetus.
  2. The fetus obtains its oxygen from the amniotic fluid.
  3. The fetus receives its oxygen by osmosis from the mothers bloodstream.
  4. Fetal circulation delivers the highest amount of oxygen to the abdomen and lower body of the fetus. Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Most of the blood supply bypasses the fetal lungs because they do not carry out respiratory gas exchange. The placenta assumes the function of the fetal lungs by supplying oxygen and allowing the fetus to excrete carbon dioxide into the maternal bloodstream.
  1. The OB-GYN nurse teaches a first-time pregnant client that functions of the amniotic fluid include which of the following? Select all that apply.
  1. Allowing fetal freedom of movement
  2. Releasing heat to control fetal temperature
  3. Acting as an extension of fetal extracellular space
  4. Providing a water source for the fetus to swallow
  5. Acting as a wedge during labor Answer: 1, 3, 5 Explanation:
  6. Amniotic fluid permits fetal freedom of movement.
  7. A primary function of amniotic fluid is to act as an extension of fetal extracellular space.
  8. A primary function of amniotic fluid is to act as a wedge during labor.
  1. During the initial visit with the nurse at the fertility clinic, the client asks what effect cigarette smoking has on the ability to conceive. What is the nurses best response?
  1. Smoking has no effect.
  2. Only if you smoke more than one pack a day will you experience difficulty.
  3. After your first semen analysis, we will determine whether there will be any difficulty.
  4. Smoking can affect the quantity of sperm. Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. The quantity and quality of male sperm are affected by cigarette smoking.
  1. A couple is seeking advice regarding what they can do to increase the chances of becoming pregnant. What recommendation can the nurse give to the couple?
  1. The couple could use vaginal lubricants during intercourse.
  2. The couple should delay having intercourse until the day of ovulation.
  3. The woman should refrain from douching.
  4. The woman should be on top during intercourse. Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. This is the correct answer, as douching can alter sperm mobility.
  1. The nurse is teaching an infertile couple about the causes of infertility. The nurse tells them that infertility can be caused by which of the following? Select all that apply.
  1. Immunological responses
  2. Congenital anomalies
  3. Patent fallopian tubes
  4. Hypothyroidism
  5. Favorable cervical mucus Answer: 1, 2, 4 Explanation:
  6. Immunological responses, such as antisperm antibodies, can cause infertility.
  7. Congenital anomalies, such as a septate uterus, can cause infertility.
  8. Hypothyroidism is a cause of infertility.
  1. A client and her husband have contacted their physician about fertility problems. At the initial visit, the nurse instructs them about the infertility workup. Which statement by the client would indicate that the instructions have been successful?
  1. Expect that a repeat test might be required.
  2. Expect a small sample. Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. A repeat semen analysis might be required to adequately assess the mans fertility potential.
  1. A client scheduled a laparoscopy. After the procedure, what does the nurse instruct the client to do?
  1. Stay on bed rest for 48 hours.
  2. Expect to have shoulder and arm pain.
  3. Purchase a rectal tube to relieve the gas.
  4. Lie on her back to relieve the gas pain after the procedure. Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Assuming a supine position may help relieve residual shoulder and chest discomfort caused by any remaining gas.
  1. The nurse is reviewing assessment data from several different male clients. Which one should receive information about causes of infertility?
  1. Circumcised client
  2. Client with a history of premature ejaculation
  3. Client with a history of measles at age 12
  4. Client employed as an engineer Answer: 2 Explanation:
  5. Premature ejaculation is a possible cause of infertility.
  1. A client is to receive fertility drugs prior to in vitro fertilization. What is the expected action of this medication?
  1. Prolonging of the luteal phase
  2. Stimulation of ovulation
  3. Suppression of menstruation
  4. Promotion of cervical mucus production

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. In IVF, a womans ovaries are stimulated by a combination of medications, one or more oocytes are aspirated from her ovaries and fertilized in the laboratory, and then they are placed into her uterus after normal embryo development has begun.

  1. A couple who have sought fertility counseling have been told that the mans sperm count is very low. The nurse advises the couple that spermatogenesis is impaired when which condition occurs?
  1. The vas deferens is ligated.
  2. Male obesity is present.
  3. The prostate gland is enlarged.
  4. The flagella are segmented. Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Male obesity is associated with poor spermatogenesis and increased amount of time to conception.
  1. An infertile couple confides in the nurse at the infertility clinic that they feel overwhelmed with the decisions facing them. Which nursing strategy would be most appropriate?
  1. Refer them to a marriage counselor.
  2. Provide them with information and instructions throughout the diagnostic and therapeutic process.
  3. Express concern and caring.
  4. Inquire about the names they have chosen for their baby. Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. The nurse can provide comfort to couples by offering a sympathetic ear, a nonjudgmental approach, and appropriate information and instruction throughout the diagnostic and therapeutic processes.
  1. What type of testing is an inexpensive way to predict the presence of tubal disease and may be more predictive of infertility than an abnormal HSG?
  1. Chlamydia trachomatis IgG antibody testing
  2. Preimplantation genetic testing
  3. Noninvasive prenatal testing (NIPT)
  4. DNA testing

Select all that apply.

  1. You might want to consider adoption.
  2. An option you might consider is in vitro fertilization.
  3. Surrogacy might be your best option.
  4. Many couples utilize therapeutic husband insemination.
  5. The GIFT procedure has had much success. Answer: 2, 4 Explanation:
  6. The in vitro fertilization procedure is used in cases in which infertility has resulted from male infertility.
  7. Therapeutic husband insemination is generally indicated for such seminal deficiencies as oligospermia.
  1. The physician has prescribed the medication clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for a client with infertility. What should the nurses instructions to the woman include?
  1. Have intercourse every day of 1 week, starting 5 days after completion of medication.
  2. This medication is administered intravenously.
  3. Contact the doctor if visual disturbances occur.
  4. A contraindication is kidney disease. Explanation:
  5. Side effects of clomiphene citrate include visual symptoms such as spots and flashes.
  1. Approximately 80% of anovulatory women have which condition?
  1. Turner syndrome
  2. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
  3. Klinefelter syndrome
  4. Fragile X syndrome Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Approximately 80% of anovulatory women have polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), causing insulin resistance and hyperinsulinemia.
  1. The nurse in a fertility clinic is working with a woman who has been undergoing infertility treatment with clomiphene citrate. Which statement would the nurse expect the woman to make?
  1. I feel moody so much of the time.
  2. If this doesnt work, I think my husband will leave me.
  3. This medication will guarantee a pregnancy.
  4. My risk of twins or triplets is the same as for the general population. Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Mood swings are a side effect of clomiphene citrate.
  1. The nurse is planning a group session for clients who are beginning infertility evaluation. Which statements should be included in this session? Select all that apply.
  1. Infertility can be stressful for a marriage.
  2. The doctor will be able to tell why you have not conceived.
  3. Your insurance will pay for the infertility treatments.
  4. Keep communicating with one another through this process.
  5. Support organizations can be helpful to deal with the emotional issues associated with infertility. Answer: 1, 4, 5 Explanation:
  6. Often an intact marriage will become stressed by the intrusive but necessary infertility procedures and treatments.
  7. Communication is important; clients should communicate verbally and share feelings and support.
  8. Referral to mental health professionals is helpful when the emotional issues become too disruptive in the couples relationship or life. Couples should be made aware of infertility support and education organizations, which may help meet some of these needs and validate their feelings.
  1. A client has been diagnosed with fallopian tube obstruction and told that her best option for becoming pregnant is with in vitro fertilization. The client asks the nurse about the procedure. What is the nurses best explanation of this procedure?
  1. In vitro fertilization (IVF) occurs over a full menstrual cycle.
  2. In IVF, a womans ovaries are stimulated by a combination of egg and sperm donations.
  3. After ovarian stimulation, you will be inseminated with your partners sperm.
  4. The oocytes are aspirated from the ovaries and fertilized in the laboratory.