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MCCC Entrance Exam (2024)Solved 100% Correct!!
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POSITIONS ON A MOVING OR TEMPORARILY HALTED ENEMY - Answer AMBUSH A TACTICAL MISSION TASK IN WHICH A COMMANDER USES DIRECT FIRES, SUPPORTED INDIRECT FIRES, TO ENGAGE AN ENEMY FORCE WITHOUT CLOSING WITH THE ENEMY TO DESTROY, SUPPRESS, FIX, OR DECEIVE THAT ENEMY - Answer ATTACK BY FIRE A TACTICAL MISSION TASK THAT DENIES THE ENEMY ACCESS TO AN AREA OR PREVENTS HIS ADVANCE IN A DIRECTION OR ALONG AN AVENUE OF APPROACH - Answer BLOCK A TACTICAL MISSION TASK IN WHICH THE UNIT EMPLOYS ALL AVAILABLE MEANS TO BREAK THROUGH OR ESTABLISH A PASSAGE THROUGH AN ENEMY DEFENSE, OBSTACLE, MINEFIELD, OR FORTIFICATION - Answer BREACH A TACTICAL MISSION TASK IN WHICH THE COMMANDER DIRECTS HIS UNIT TO MANEUVER AROUND AN OBSTACLE, POSITION, OR ENEMY FORCE TO MAINTAIN THE MOMENTUM OF THE OPERATION WHILE DELIBERATELY AVOIDING COMBAT WITH AN ENEMY FORCE - Answer BYPASS A tactical mission task in which the commander restricts enemy movement to a narrow zone by exploiting terrain coupled with the use of obstacles, fires, or friendly maneuver - Answer Canalize A tactical mission task that requires the commander to stop, hold, or surround enemy forces or to cause them to center their activity on a given front and prevent them from withdrawing any part of their forces for use elsewhere - Answer Contain A tactical mission task that requires the commander to maintain physical influence over a specified area to prevent its use by an enemy or to create conditions necessary for successful friendly operations - Answer Control Attack by part or all of a deafening force against an enemy attacking force, for such specific purposes as regaining ground lost, or cutting off or destroying enemy advance units, and with the general objective of denying to the enemy the attainment of the enemy's purpose in attacking. In sustained defensive operations, it is undertaken to restore the battle position and is directed at limited objectives - Answer Counterattack A tactical mission task that requires the commander to remove all enemy forces and eliminate organised resistance within an assigned area - Answer Clear To slow the time of arrival of enemy forces or capabilities or alter the ability of the enemy or adversary to project forces or capabilities - Answer Delay
A tactical mission task that physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted. Alternatively, to destroy a combat system is to damage it so badly that it cannot perform any function or be restored to a usable condition without being entirely rebuilt - Answer Destroy A tactical mission task in which a commander integrates direct and indirect fires, terrain, and obstacles to upset an enemy's formation or tempo, interrupt his timetable, or cause enemy forces to commit prematurely to attack in piecemeal fashion - Answer Disrupt A tactical mission task in which a second committed force follows a force conducting an offensive task and is prepared to continue the mission if the lead force is fixed, attrited, or unable to continue - Answer Follow and Assume A tactical mission task in which a committed force follows and supports a lead force conducting an offensive task - Answer Follow and Support A tactical mission task where a commander prevents the enemy from moving any part of his force from a specific location for a specific period - Answer Fix A tactical mission task where the commander prevents, disrupts, or delays the enemy's use of an area or route - Answer Interdict A tactical mission task that requires a unit to seal off--both physically and psychologically--an enemy from sources of support, deny the enemy freedom of movement, and prevent the isolated enemy force from having contact with other enemy forces - Answer Isolate A tactical mission task that results in rendering enemy personnel or materiel incapable of interfering with a particular operation - Answer Neutralize A tactical mission task that involves a force moving a friendly force into an area so that it can control that area. Both the force's movement to and the occupation of the area occur without enemy opposition - Answer Occupy An operation in which a force moves forward or rearward through another force's combat positions with the intention of moving into or out of contact with the enemy - Answer Passage of Lines An operation in which, by direction of higher authority, all or part of a unit is replaced in an area by the incoming unit and the responsibilities of the replaced elements for the mission and the assigned zone of operations are transferred to the incoming unit
The point where two infiltrating elements in the same or different infiltration lanes are scheduled to meet to consolidate before proceeding on with their missions - Answer Linkup Point An immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas - Answer Final Protective Fire (FPF) A phase line crossed at a prescribed time by troops initiating an offensive operation - Answer Line of Departure (LD) Line utilised for control and coordination of military operations, usually an easily identified feature in the operational area - Answer Phase Line (PL) A predetermined point on the ground used to control movement, tactical maneuver, and orientation - Answer Checkpoint (CP) An easily recognizable point on the ground (either natural or man-made) used to initiate, distribute, and control fires - Answer Target Reference Point (TRP) An area designated and numbered for future firing - Answer Target A route through, over, or around an enemy or friendly obstacle that provides safe passage of a passing force. The route may be reduced and proofed as part of a breaching operation, constructed as part of the obstacle, or marked as a bypass - Answer Lane IBCT Infantry Battalion - Answer IBCT Airborne Infantry Battalion - Answer IBCT Air Assault Battalion - Answer IBCT Mortar Section - Answer ABCT CAB - Answer ABCT Infantry Company - Answer ABCT Mortar Platoon - Answer SBCT Infantry Battalion - Answer SBCT MGS Platoon - Answer SBCT Mortar Platoon - Answer IBCT Cavalry Squadron - Answer
ABCT Cavalry Squadron - Answer SBCT Cavalry Squadron - Answer CA Team - Answer MISO Team - Answer Special Forces Unit - Answer Ranger Unit - Answer Multiple Rocket Launcher Artillery Unit - Answer Single Rocket Launcher Artillery Unit - Answer Tube Artillery Unit - Answer Equivalent Threat Units - Answer IBCT Weapons Company - Answer ABCT Armor Company/Platoon - Answer M4A1 - Answer 5.56 mm Max: 3600 m Point: 500 m Area: 600 m Crew: N/A Symbol: M320 - Answer 40 mm MAX: 400 m Point: 150 m Area: 350 m Crew: N/A Symbol: M249 - Answer 5.56 mm MAX: 3600 m Point (B): 600 m Point (T): 800 m Area (B): 800 Area (T): 1000 Crew: N/A Symbol: M2 .50 Cal - Answer .50 cal
M1A2 Abrams - Answer 120 mm Cannon, 2x 7.62 mm (1x coax), 1x .50 cal 120 mm: 4000 m Crew: 4 PAX (CDR, Gunner, Loader, Driver) Symbol: M2 Bradley - Answer 25 mm Chain Gun, 7.62 mm coax, 2x TOW 25 mm: MAX 6800 m, Eff 3000 m Other: See TOW/M Crew: 3 PAX (CDR, Gunner, Driver) + 6x Dismounts Symbol: M120 120 mm Mortar - Answer 120 mm Range: 200-7200 m Crew: 5 PAX (SL, Gunner, AG, 1AB, 2AB) Symbol: M109A6 Paladin - Answer 155 mm 22 km (unassisted) 30 km (assisted) Crew: 4 PAX (CDR, Gunner, Loader, Driver) Symbol: M252 81 mm Mortar - Answer 81 mm 83 - 5608 m Crew: 5 PAX (SL, Gunner, AG, 1AB, 2AB) Symbol: M224 60 mm Mortar - Answer 60 mm Conventional: 70-3490 m Handheld: 75-1340 m Crew: 3 PAX (SL, Gunner, AB) Symbol: M1126 Stryker - Answer .50 cal, 40 mm, or 7.62 mm See M2/Mk19/M Crew: 2 PAX (CDR, Driver) + 9 Dismounts Symbol: M1128 Stryker MGS - Answer 105 mm 3200 m 3 PAX (CDR, Driver, Gunner) Symbol: HMMWV - Answer Various weapons Mobility: > 500 km Crew: 2-4 PAX Symbol:
M113 - Answer .50 cal 2000 m 2 PAX + 11 Dismounts M1 ABV - Answer .50 cal and M58 MICLIC See M 2 PAX M9 ACE - Answer Smoke Mobility > 350 km 1 PAX Avenger - Answer FIM-92 Stinger Missiles 8 km 2 PAX (Basic) 3 PAX (STC) AH-64 Apache - Answer 30 mm Chain Gun, 70 mm Rockets, AGM-114 Hellfires 30 mm: 1700 m 70 mm: 8 km Hellfires: 500 m - 8 km 2 PAX M3/M4 MAAWS - Answer 84 mm Eff: 700 m Eff w/boost: 1000 m 2 PAX (Gunner and Loader) M110 SASS - Answer 7.62 mm Eff: 800 m Crew: N/A M104 Wolverine - Answer N/A Mobility > 400 km 2 PAX AK- 47 - Answer 7. Max: 800 m Eff: 300 m AK- 74 - Answer 5.45 mm Max: 800 m Eff: 500 m SVD - Answer 7.62 mm Eff: 800 m Eff w/scope: 1000m
Crew: 4 PAX T- 62 - Answer 115 mm cannon Max: 3000 m Eff: 1800 m 7.62 mm coax Max: 2000 m Eff: 800 m Crew: 4 PAX T-72A/M1 - Answer 125 mm cannon Max: 3000+ m Eff: 2000+ m 12.7 mm Max: 2000 m Eff: 1500 m 7.62 mm Max: 1800 m Eff: 1000 m Crew: 3 PAX T-80B - Answer 125 mm cannon Max: 4000 m Eff: 3000 m 12.7 mm Max: 2000 m Eff: 1500 m 7.62 mm Max: 2000 m Eff: 1000 m Crew: 3 PAX T-90A - Answer 125 mm cannon Max: 4000 m Eff: 3000 m 12.7 mm Max: 2000 m Eff: 2000 m
7.62 mm Max: 2000 m Eff: 1500+ m Crew: 3 PAX BMP- 1 - Answer 73 mm cannon Max: 1300 m Eff: 800 m AT- 4 ATGM Max/Eff: 3000 m 7.62 mm Max: 1300 m Eff: 1000 m Crew: 3 PAX + 6 DM BMP- 2 - Answer 30 mm chain gun Max: 2500 m Eff: 2000 m AT-5 ATGM Max/Eff: 4000 m
Max: 2000 m Eff: 1000 m Crew: 3 PAX + 7 DM BMP-3 UAE - Answer 100 mm cannon Max: 4000 m Eff: 4000 m 30 mm Max/Eff: 2500+ m 7.62 mm coax Max/Eff: 2000 m 7.62 mm bow Max/Eff: 1000 m Crew: 3 PAX + 7 DM
PLT Volley: 3000 m Crew: 6 PAX 2S6M1 - Answer 2x 30 mm: 4000 m SA-19: 10 km Crew: 4 PAX SU-25 Frogfoot - Answer 30 mm mg: 4000 m ATGM: 6-7 km Crew: 1 PAX 2S9- 1 - Answer 120 mm: 8850 m Crew: 4 PAX 2S19 - Answer 152 mm: 6.5 - 24.7 km 12.7 mm: 1500 m Crew: 5 PAX + 2 in ammo carrier NSV - Answer 12.7 mm Max: 7850 m Eff: 2000 m BM- 14 - Answer 140 mm rockets: 2-10 km Crew: 7 PAX BM- 21 - Answer 122 mm rockets: 1.5-32.7 km Crew: 5 PAX AT-14 Kornet - Answer Kornet 152 mm: 100-5500 m Crew: 2-3 PAX M240 - Answer 7.62mm Max: 3725m Point (B): 600m Point (T): 800m Area (B): 800m Area (T): 1800m M249 (Image) - Answer M240 (Image) - Answer M2 .50 Cal (Image) - Answer Mk19 (Image) - Answer
M777 Howitzer (Image) - Answer M119 Howitzer (Image) - Answer M107 Rifle (Image) - Answer AT-4 (Image) - Answer ITAS/TOW (Image) - Answer Javelin (Image) - Answer M1A2 (Image) - Answer M2 Bradley (Image) - Answer M120 120 mm Mortar (Image) - Answer M109A6 Paladin (Image) - Answer M252 81 mm Mortar (Image) - Answer M224 60 mm Mortar (Image) - Answer M1126 Stryker (Image) - Answer M1128 Stryker MGS (Image) - Answer HMMWV (Image) - Answer M1 ABV (Image) - Answer M9 ACE (Image) - Answer Avenger (Image) - Answer Ah-64 Apache (Image) - Answer M3/M4 MAAWS (Image) - Answer M110 SASS (Image) - Answer M104 Wolverine (Image) - Answer AK-47 (Image) - Answer AK-74 (Image) - Answer
SU-25 Frogfoot (Image) - Answer 2S9-1 (Image) - Answer 2S19 (Image) - Answer NSV (Image) - Answer BM-14 (Image) - Answer BM-21 (Image) - Answer AT-14 Kornet (Image) - Answer Troop Leading Procedures - Answer Receive the Mission Issue a Warning Order Make a Tentative Plan Initiate Movement Conduct Reconnaissance Complete the Plan Issue the Order Supervise and Refine Tenets of Unified Land Operations - Answer Simultaneity Depth Synchronization Flexibility Decisive Action Tasks - Answer Offense Defense Stability Operations Defense Support of Civil Authorities Steps of IPB - Answer Define the Operational Environment Describe environmental effects on operations Evaluate the threat Determine threat COAs The Mission Statement - Answer Who (the unit) What (unit's essential task and type of operation) When (time given in the higher level order) Where (OBJ or location stated in the higher order) Why (unit's purpose, taken from higher's concept of the operation) A geographic place, specific key event, critical factor, or function that, when acted upon, allows commanders to gain a marked advantage over an adversary or contribute materially to achieving success. - Answer Decisive Point
Offensive Tasks - Answer Movement to Contact Exploitation Attack Pursuit Defensive Tasks - Answer Area Defense Mobile Defense Retrograde Characteristics of the Offense - Answer Concentration Audacity Tempo Surprise Characteristics of the Defense - Answer Disruption Flexibility Maneuver Mass/Concentration Operations in Depth Preparation Security Levels of War - Answer Strategic Operational Tactical Fundamentals of Reconnaissance - Answer Ensure continuous reconnaissance Do not keep reconnaissance assets in reserve Orient on the reconnaissance objective Report information rapidly and accurately Retain freedom of maneuver Gain and maintain enemy contact Develop the situation rapidly Fundamentals of Security - Answer Provide early and accurate warning Provide reaction time and maneuver space Orient on the force or facility to be secured Perform continuous reconnaissance Maintain enemy contact Principles of Direct Fire Control - Answer MADE MP Mass the effects of fire Avoid target overkill Destroy the greatest threat first Employ the best weapon for the target Minimize exposure Prevent fratricide
Free: engage any targets not positively ID'd as friendly Warfighting Functions - Answer Command and Control Movement and Maneuver Intelligence Fires Sustainment Protection Military Aspects of Terrain - Answer Obstacles Avenues of Approach Key Terrain Observation and Fields of Fire Cover and Concealment Five Paragraphs of the OPORD - Answer Situation Mission Execution Sustainment Command and Signal An information requirement identified by the commander as being critical to facilitating timely decision making. Two key elements are Friendly Forces Information Requirements and Priority Information Requirements.-Specified by a commander for a specific operations-Applicable only to commander who specifies it-Situation dependent - directly linked to a current or future mission-Time sensitive - Answer Commander's Critical Information Requirements Mission Variables - Answer TMT-CET (memorize in this order) Time Mission Terrain and Weather Civil Considerations Enemy Troops and Support available