Download MBIO 4300 Finals Exam Study Guide: Infectious Diseases and Public Health and more Exams Biology in PDF only on Docsity!
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What are the three types of diarrhea based on severity? - ansSevere (more than 10 watery stools per day), Moderate (less than 10 watery stools per day), Mild (few watery stools per day). What is acute watery diarrhea? - ansDiarrhea that lasts for hours to days. What characterizes dysentery? - ansIt is characterized by bloody diarrhea. How long does persistent diarrhea last? - ansIt lasts greater than 14 days. What are the main etiological categories of diarrheal diseases? - ansParasitic, Viral, and Bacterial. What are the primary modes of spread and transmission for diarrheal diseases? - ansPerson to person, zoonotic sources to humans, and contaminated water. List some risk factors for diarrheal diseases. - ansPoor hygiene, unclean water, poor housing conditions, open defecation, poor access to healthcare, undernutrition, and a poor immune system. What is the role of oral rehydration salts (ORS) in treating diarrhea? - ansORS is a low osmolarity solution of clean water, electrolytes, and sugar, and is more than 90% effective at decreasing mortality rate. What is the recommended duration for zinc supplements in diarrhea treatment? - ans10- 14 days therapy. What is integrated community case management (iCCM)? - ansA strategy that trains healthcare providers on how to use ORS and zinc therapy. What issues can arise in the treatment of diarrheal diseases? - ansFluid curtailment, misinformation, local beliefs about natural and supernatural causes. What bacterium causes cholera? - ansVibrio cholerae (O1 strain). What is a common symptom of symptomatic cholera infections? - ansLoss of about 5 liters of fluid a day. What is the treatment for cholera? - ansORS mixed with 1L of clean water, IV fluids for severe cases, and antibiotics to decrease the duration of diarrhea. What are the complications associated with cholera? - ansHypovolemic shock and multiple organ failure. How is cholera diagnosed? - ansPCR of stool cultures. What vaccines are available for cholera? - ansOral vaccines such as Dukoral, Sanchol, and Euvichol. What are the main transmission routes for Cryptosporidium and Giardia? - ansDrinking contaminated water, and contamination from fruits and vegetables. What is the treatment for Cryptosporidium? - ansNitazoxanide, but it is not given to children under 1 year old and is not effective in immunocompromised patients. What is the treatment for Giardia? - ansMetronidazole, which is 80% effective in individuals. What are some risk factors for increased incidence of Cryptosporidium and Giardia? - ansIncreased population growth and climate change. What percentage of HIV positive individuals in Africa have access to ARV therapy? - ans64% of HIV positive individuals have access to ARV therapy. What percentage of those on ARV therapy display low viral load? - ans52% of those on ARV therapy display low viral load. Which gender shows higher compliance with HIV therapy in Africa? - ansMore women than men are on therapy and compliant.
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What is the leading cause of AIDS-related deaths in Africa? - ans33% of AIDS-related deaths occur due to TB infection. How does HIV affect life expectancy in Africa? - ansHIV virus has decreased life expectancy in Africa. Which region has the highest number of HIV positive children? - ansAfrica has the highest number of HIV positive children. What are some issues faced by HIV positive individuals in Africa? - ansStigma, lack of rights, discrimination in healthcare, and slower social and economic progress. How does stigma affect HIV positive children in Africa? - ansHIV positive children are often not allowed to attend schools. What is a significant social issue affecting women in relation to HIV in Africa? - ansIncreased marriage in young women. What is the prevalence of HIV-2 in Africa? - ansHIV-2 is prevalent in Western Africa. What are the main contrasts between HIV-1 and HIV-2? - ansHIV-1 has global prevalence while HIV-2 is prevalent in Western Africa. What are some similarities between HIV-1 and HIV-2? - ansBoth have similar genomic arrangements, infect CD4+ T helper cells, and have the same clinical progression ending with AIDS. What are characteristic features of HIV-2? - ansHIV-2 is less transmissible, not aggressive, and progresses more slowly. What are 'elite controllers' in the context of HIV? - ansIndividuals who have better control of the disease, lower viral loads, and higher CD4+ T cells. What are some barriers to effective HIV treatment in Africa? - ansPoorly coordinated healthcare, lack of trained workers, high costs, ARV side effects, and discrimination. What is vertical transmission of HIV? - ansMother to child transmission responsible for more childhood HIV, occurring across the placenta, during birth, or via breast-feeding. What is a key prevention strategy for mother-to-child transmission of HIV? - ansStarting the mother on ARV as soon as possible during pregnancy. What diagnostic method is used to detect HIV in infants? - ansPCR is used to detect viral RNA. What can lead to false positives in HIV testing? - ansAntibodies from an HIV positive mother could provide false positives. How does circumcision impact the risk of HIV infection? - ansCircumcision has been shown to reduce the risk of HIV infection by 60%. What are some advantages of circumcision in relation to HIV? - ansIt reduces the risk of STIs and long-term costs associated with ARV therapy. What family of viruses does Ebola belong to? - ansFiloviridae How many species of Ebolavirus are there? - ans6 species, with 4 causing human infection. What was the first detected species of Ebola and when was it first identified? - ansEbola Zaire (EBOV), first detected in 1976. What is the primary vector for Ebola transmission? - ansFruit bats (Pteropodidae). How do humans primarily contract Ebola from animals? - ansThrough contact with tissue and bodily fluids from infected animals. What are the primary modes of human-to-human transmission of Ebola? - ansContact with blood and bodily fluids of infected individuals. What percentage of new Ebola infections occur during burial? - ans20%.
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What is the incubation period for Japanese encephalitis? - ans5 to 15 days. What are the initial symptoms of Japanese encephalitis? - ansFever, headache, vomiting. What severe symptoms can occur with Japanese encephalitis? - ansEncephalitis, psychiatric changes, seizures, mobility issues, weakness. How do symptoms of Japanese encephalitis mimic Parkinson's disease? - ansSudden onset, facial tremors, flaccid paralysis due to motor neurone damage. What is the primary method for diagnosing Japanese encephalitis? - ansAntibody testing, specifically CSF detection of anti-JE IgM. What is important about the timing of antibody testing for Japanese encephalitis? - ansTesting too early may not show antibodies; too late may show class switching. What types of vaccines are available for Japanese encephalitis? - ansBoth live attenuated and inactivated vaccines. What is a characteristic of the inactivated vaccine for Japanese encephalitis? - ansVero-cell derived, used in NA, Australia, and Europe, requires 2 doses. What is a characteristic of the live attenuated vaccine for Japanese encephalitis? - ansAvailable in China, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand. What potential issue can arise from maternal antibodies when vaccinating infants against Japanese encephalitis? - ansMaternal antibodies can nullify the vaccine effect while breastfeeding. What bacterium causes leprosy? - ansMycobacterium leprae. What type of organism is Mycobacterium leprae? - ansAn intracellular acid-fast bacillus. What is the generation time of Mycobacterium leprae? - ans13 days, making it incredibly slow growing. Can Mycobacterium leprae be cultured in a lab? - ansNo, it cannot be cultured in a lab. What is the incubation period for leprosy? - ans5 years. What temperature does Mycobacterium leprae prefer? - ansCooler temperatures. What are the primary sites of infection for leprosy? - ansSkin, mucosal sites, and respiratory sites. How does Mycobacterium leprae attach to respiratory tissue? - ansUsing adhesins. What type of nerves does Mycobacterium leprae infect? - ansPeripheral nerves. What is a major consequence of nerve damage due to leprosy? - ansLoss of sensation. What are the psychological effects of leprosy on patients? - ansAffects psychological state, leading to stigma, depression, and suicidal thoughts. Where is leprosy most prevalent? - ansIndia and Indonesia. What are the two main types of leprosy? - ansTuberculoid leprosy (paucibacillary) and lepromatous leprosy (multibacillary). What characterizes tuberculoid leprosy? - ansLarge, few lesions, macular and red rash, raised borders, and thickened nerves. What are the characteristics of lepromatous leprosy? - ansMultiple and deeper lesions, more aggressive, and may infect hair follicles. What is a common presentation complaint in leprosy patients? - ansLoss of sensation. How is leprosy transmitted? - ansThrough droplet transmission from respiratory mucosa. What is the main method for diagnosing leprosy? - ansBased on clinical presentation, often requiring a trained professional. What is the treatment for paucibacillary leprosy? - ansRifampicin and Dapsone for 6 months.
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What is the treatment for multibacillary leprosy? - ansRifampicin, Dapsone, and Clofazimine for 12 months. What is a key limitation of leprosy treatment? - ansWhile treatment resolves skin lesions, nerve damage is irreversible. What bacterium causes Typhoid fever? - ansSalmonella enterica, specifically serotype Typhi. What type of bacteria is Salmonella enterica? - ansGram negative bacteria. What is another name for Typhoid fever? - ansEnteric fever. How is Typhoid fever transmitted? - ansVia the fecal/oral route. What are chronic carriers of Typhoid fever? - ansIndividuals who shed the bacteria for more than one year, even after recovery. What are some risk factors for Typhoid fever? - ansUnclean water, poorly treated sewage systems, rapid urbanization, open defecation, and unequal access to sanitation. What are common sources of Typhoid fever spread? - ansNon-boiled water, raw or poorly cooked shellfish, unpeeled raw fruits and vegetables, unpasteurized dairy, and shellfish contaminated with sewage. What symptoms appear after exposure to Typhoid fever? - ansSymptoms include diarrhea, muscle aches, rash on the trunk, swollen stomach, cough, and very high fever. What is the typical fever pattern in Typhoid fever? - ansThe fever increases gradually and can reach 39.5-40˚C. What severe complications can arise from Typhoid fever? - ansBlood in stools, hypovolemic shock, organ failure, GI tract bleeding, perforations of intestines, and peritonitis. How is Typhoid fever diagnosed? - ansThrough blood culture and serological tests looking for a 4-fold increase in antibody titer. What is a common issue with blood cultures for diagnosing Typhoid fever? - ansPoor sensitivity and low sample volume. What is the primary treatment for Typhoid fever? - ansAntibiotics, though resistance issues are a concern. What is the purpose of combination therapy in treating Typhoid fever? - ansTo prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. What vaccines are available for Typhoid fever? - ansTwo vaccines: an oral vaccine (Ty21a) and an intramuscular injection (Vi polysaccharide vaccine). What is the dosing schedule for the oral Ty21a vaccine? - ansTaken in a coated capsule once per day over a period of 3 days. What is a limitation of the Vi polysaccharide vaccine? - ansIt cannot be given to children under 2 years old and requires a booster every 3 years. What is the novel vaccine developed in India for Typhoid fever? - ansConjugated vaccine Typbar-TCV, which has better immunogenicity. What does the Typbar-TCV vaccine not protect against? - ansIt does not protect against paratyphi. How long can the bacteria be shed in stools after Typhoid infection? - ansFor up to 6 months, even after recovery. What is the significance of surveillance and communication in Typhoid treatment? - ansIt is critical for managing resistance issues and ensuring effective treatment. What organism causes Typhus? - ansRickettsia prowazekii. What type of organism is Rickettsia prowazekii? - ansAn obligate intracellular organism.
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What are the complications associated with Nipah Virus infection? - ansIt can cause encephalitis and affect major organ systems. What is the mortality rate of Nipah Virus infections? - ans40-75%, varying dramatically based on region. What risk factors contribute to Nipah Virus transmission? - ansIncreasing urbanization and closer contact between animals and humans. What are some common symptoms of a Nipah Virus infection? - ansSymptoms can be asymptomatic or similar to influenza, including headache, sore throat, and fever. What severe complications can arise from a complicated Nipah Virus infection? - ansSevere respiratory infection, pneumonia, and encephalitis. How can Nipah Virus cross the blood-brain barrier? - ansThrough transcytosis. What neurological symptoms can develop within 48 hours of infection? - ansSwelling of the brain, seizures, and rapid entry into coma. What diagnostic methods are used for Nipah Virus? - ansRT-PCR, ELISA, and MRI. What does RT-PCR detect in the context of Nipah Virus? - ansIt detects the virus in throat swab, blood, urine, and CSF. What is the purpose of ELISA in diagnosing Nipah Virus? - ansTo detect antibodies and diagnose past infections. What are some prevention strategies for Nipah Virus? - ansDo not eat partially eaten fruits, boil juices and sap from date palms, and reduce overcrowding on farms. What is the current treatment for Nipah Virus infections? - ansRest, hydration, and monoclonal antibody therapy in clinical trials. What is Brucellosis? - ansA bacterial disease caused by Brucella species, primarily affecting livestock. Which species of Brucella is commonly found in sheep? - ansBrucella melitensis Which species of Brucella is commonly found in cows? - ansBrucella abortus What type of bacteria causes Brucellosis? - ansGram negative coccobacillus. What is the most prevalent disease among ruminants? - ansBrucellosis. Where is Brucellosis commonly found? - ansIn countries like Indonesia, Thailand, Malaysia, and Vietnam. What are the main transmission routes for Brucellosis? - ansIngesting unpasteurized dairy, uncooked foods, contact with sick animals, and inhalation of airborne agents. Who is at risk of contracting Brucellosis? - ansFarmers, butchers, and veterinarians. What can serve as a source of infection for Brucellosis? - ansSemen, tissues, and aborted fetuses from infected animals. What is the incubation period for Brucellosis? - ans5 days to half a year. How can Brucellosis be transmitted from human to human? - ansThrough sexual means and breast milk. What is the Test and Slaughter Strategy? - ansA method involving direct or indirect tests to control Brucellosis in animal populations. What is the Rose Bengal Test used for? - ansTo detect antibodies against Brucella with high sensitivity and specificity. What does the Complement Fixation Test measure? - ansIt measures the binding of antibodies to Brucella and the level of complement activity. What are common symptoms of Brucellosis? - ansLow-grade fever, weight loss, abdominal pain, myalgia, and arthralgia.
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What complications can arise from untreated Brucellosis? - ansEnlarged spleen and liver, arthritis, endocarditis, neurological symptoms, and respiratory infections. What is the preferred method of diagnosis for Brucellosis? - ansCulturing samples from blood, plasma, tissue, and bone marrow. What is the treatment for Brucellosis in adults? - ansOral doxycycline and rifampin for a minimum of 6 weeks. What alternative treatment can be used for children under 8 years old? - ansOral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole plus rifampin. What type of vaccines are available for animals against Brucellosis? - ansLive attenuated vaccines, such as B. Abortus RB51 and B. Abortus S19. What is a risk associated with live attenuated vaccines for Brucellosis? - ansThe risk of reversion back to wild type (WT) strain. What is a significant challenge in diagnosing Brucellosis? - ansCross reactivity with other Gram negative infections. What is the Brucella microagglutination test (BMAT)? - ansA test that looks for a fourfold increase in antibodies from the acute to convalescent phase. What are the three species of Babesia detected in Europe? - ansUbiquitously distributed and associated with a low incidence of parasitic infection. Who is mostly infected by Babesia in Europe? - ansImmunocompromised individuals. What is the primary mode of transmission for Babesia to humans? - ansThrough the Ixodes ricinus tick. What animals are involved in the zoonotic transmission of Babesia? - ansCattle, dogs, and deer. What are the possible modes of transmission for Babesia besides tick bites? - ansMother to child transmission and blood transfusion. How is Babesia diagnosed? - ansBy staining with Giemsa stain and observing under a microscope, requiring the patient to be parasitemic. What abnormalities can be found in a complete blood count (CBC) for Babesia infection? - ansDecreased red blood cells (RBCs), abnormal white blood cells (WBCs), and thrombocytopenia. What are the common symptoms of Babesia infection? - ansHemoglobinuria, jaundice, renal failure, shock, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). What is the treatment for Babesia infection? - ansClindamycin and quinines, possibly coupled with blood transfusion. What is Echovirus 11 classified as? - ansAn enterovirus of the Picornaviridae family. What are the common sources of infection for Echovirus 11? - ansVaginal secretions, blood, or stool at birth. What severe diseases can Echovirus 11 cause in infants? - ansAseptic meningitis, encephalitis, myocarditis, acute paralysis, and respiratory distress. What is the primary method for diagnosing Echovirus 11? - ansRT-PCR using swabs collected from the rectum or throat. What is the treatment approach for Echovirus 11 infection? - ansSupportive therapy including pressors and IV immunoglobulin therapy. What virus causes Tick-borne Encephalitis? - ansTick-borne Encephalitis virus (TBEV). What are the risk factors for Tick-borne Encephalitis? - ansClimate change leading to longer tick seasons and increased outdoor activities during the pandemic.
