Indian polity and history, Essays (university) of Indian History

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Revision MCQs

INDIAN POLITY

(260 MCQS)

May 2019 – March 2020

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 163 deals with the appointment of the Governor
2. Article 11 gives powers to parliament to enact laws regulating citizenship. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q2. Consider the following statements with respect to clemency power of the President in India:
3. While adhering to principles of natural justice, President has to compulsorily allow for representation by the accused.
4. He has to give reasons if he arrives at a different decision than the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q3. Consider the following statements:
5. Indra Sawhney judgment of 1992 allowed reservation in promotion to SC/STs in public services.
6. The Constitution (Seventy-Seventh Amendment) Act, 1995 added the provision enabling the state to make reservation in matters of promotion in public services for SC/STs in the Indian Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q4. Consider the following statements about Press Council of India (PCI).
7. PCI is a statutory body.
8. It is the watchdog for all forms of media including social media in India. 3. The chairperson of PCI by convention has been a retired judge of the Supreme Court. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q5. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of “Office of Profit’. 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times. 3. The term “Office of Profit” is well defined in the Indian Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q6. Which of the following agencies publishes the “Freedom on Net” report to measure the extent of Internet Freedom across the World? (a) Freedom House (b) International Telecommunication Union (c) Freedom of Information Advocates Network (d) Internet and Jurisdiction Project Q7. Consider the following statements: 1. The office of Chief Justice of India has been exempted from RTI disclosures under the section 8 of the Act. 2. Section 4 of the RTI Act provides for automatic disclosure of by public entities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q15. Consider the following statements:

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The motive of the decision of the Speaker in certifying of Money Bill cannot be challenged in the Judiciary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q16. With reference to the constitution of India, which of the following is/are correct?
3. The number of seats in the Lok Sabha can be altered only by a constitutional amendment.
4. Schedule 4 of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of Parliamentary seats to the states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q17. Consider the following statements with respect to Anglo Indians:
5. Seats are reserved for them only in the Lok Sabha.
6. They can join political party after 6 months of being nominated in Council of States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q18. Consider the following statements with respect to motions moved in Indian Parliament:
7. Passing of censure motion leads to resigning of the government.
8. Privilege motion can be brought against a non member. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q19. Which of the following motions can only be introduced in Lok Sabha? 1. No Confidence Motion 2. Adjournment Motion 3. Closure Motion 4. Privilege Motion Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q20. Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 provides for which of the following? 1. Provides Indian Citizenship to all minorities of Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan. 2. It also contains provision related to Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q21. Consider the following statements: 1. Impeachment process of President of United States of America can be initiated in either Senate or House of Representatives. 2. US President stands impeached if the House of Representatives passes the impeachment resolution by a majority of not less than two third of the membership of the House. 3. Impeachment process of Indian President can be initiated only in Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 only

(d) None of the above Q22. Consider the following statements about Right to Information Act, 2005:

1. It does not provide for voluntary disclosure of information by public authorities.
2. Every application for RTI must disclose reasons for the Information sought. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q23. Consider the following statements about Digital Communications Commission:
3. Minister of Telecommunications is the ex-officio chairman of Digital Communications Commission.
4. It is the highest decision making body at the Department of Telecommunication (DoT). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q24. Consider the following statements:
5. National Register of Indian Citizens (NRIC) will be made out of National Population Register (NPR).
6. NPR will comprise of only citizens and will not include foreigners. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q25. Which of the following sectors have been taken into consideration by the Good Governance Index?
7. Public Health
8. Economic Governance
9. Development in Artificial Intelligence
   4. Environment Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1,2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2,3 and 4 Q26. With reference to the Good Governance Index which of the following is/are correct?
   5. It has been published by NITI Aayog.
   6. In the index, overall the southern states have performed better than northern states Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q27. Which of the following are restrictions on freedoms given under Article 19(1)?
   7. Public order
   8. Contempt of court
   9. Security of state
   10. Friendly relation with foreign countries Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3only (c) 1 ,2 and 4 only (d) 1,2,3 and 4 Q28. Which of the following features of Indian constitution are said to be federal in nature?
   11. Supremacy of constitution
   12. Independent Judiciary
   13. Integrated Judiciary
   14. 7th Schedule
   15. All India Service Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1,2 and 3 only (c) 1,2 and 4 only (d) 1,2,4 and 5 only

Q35. Consider the following statements about “Crime in India 2018” Report released by NCRB:

1. Crime against women has decreased as compared to 2017.
2. Cases of industrial riots and riots related to water disputes have increased.
3. Maximum number of suicides was committed by Daily Wage Earners. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 Q36. Which of the statements about Constitution of India is/are correct?
4. The provision of citizenship are given in Part III.
5. Only Parliament shall have powers to deal with the matters of citizenship. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q37. State can restrict freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion under Article 25 of the Indian Constitution on which of the following grounds?
6. Public order
7. Morality
8. Health Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q38. Which among the following removed right to property from Part III and added it under Article 300A? (a) 15th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1963 (b) 31st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1973 (c) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (d) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 Q39. Consider the following statements related to Telecommunication Consumers Education and Protection Fund: 1. The Fund has been notified by Telecom Regulatory Authority of India. 2. The fund will be used to deposit any excess charges revealed in the billing audit and unclaimed funds of consumers. 3. The income from the fund is utilized to undertake programmes and activities relating to consumer education and protection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q40. Which of the following discretionary powers of the Governor are explicitly provided in the Constitution? 1. Governor’s Report in case of failure of Constitutional machinery in States. 2. Dismissal of state Council of Ministers. 3. Administration of adjoining Union territories. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q41. Consider the following statements about Electoral bonds: 1. All political parties in India can receive Electoral Bonds.

2. The Electoral Bonds can be encashed only through Bank account.
3. The Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the above Q42. Consider the following statements:
4. Right to protest has been mentioned in Article 19
5. Article 19(1) (b) contains the reasonable restrictions to the freedoms. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q43. Consider the following statements regarding Electoral Bonds:
6. Electoral Bonds do not have an expiry date.
7. Electoral Bonds can be dematerialized Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q44. Consider the following statements related to Anti-Defection as provided under the 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
8. It provides for the disqualification of both nominated and independent members upon joining any political party.
9. The Indian Constitution imposes a time limit of 3 months on the Speaker to decide on the disqualification of the members Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q45. Which of the following information is/are mandatory to be provided by the respective candidates to Election Commission while filing nomination papers for Lok Sabha Elections? 1. Educational Qualification of the candidate 2. Income Tax Returns for the last two years 3. Details of financial assets stashed abroad Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1 only Q46. Which of the following can be said to be grounds of disqualification of member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a State under “Article 191”? 1. Holding Office of Profit 2. Being declared of Unsound Mind by competent Court 3. If a member is disqualified under Tenth Schedule for Anti-defection activities. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q47. Consider the following statements regarding Legislative Councils: 1. The provision for their creation and abolition have been provided in the Constitution 2. Article 171 deals with the composition of the Councils.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q54. Consider the following statements about Protection of Plant Variety and Farmer's Right Act 2001:

1. This act was enacted to comply with the WTO's Agreement on Trade related aspects of Intellectual property Rights (TRIPS)
2. Under this Act, farmers are entitled to exchange or sell their farm produces including seed of a registered variety under another brand name. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q55. Which of the following can be said to be the responsibilities of Returning Officer appointed by the Election Commission?
3. Scrutinizing of nomination forms of candidates.
4. Allotment of symbols
5. Counting of votes
6. Declaration of results of election Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q56. Consider the following statements:
7. The removal process of Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioner is same.
8. Election Commissioners shall be appointed by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q57. Which of the following statements is /are correct about proxy voting in India?
   1. It is available to members of the armed forces and the NRIs
   2. A proxy voter has to be registered as voter in the same constituency as the service voter. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q58. Collegium System for the appointment of Judges was introduced by? (a) 42nd Amendment Act (b) Kesavananda Bharti case 1973 (c) 3rd Judges case (d) 1st Judges case Q59. Number of Puisne Judges in the Supreme Court can be increased by? (a) President of India (b) Parliament by amendment of Constitution under Article 368 (c) Chief Justice of Supreme Court (d) Parliament by amending constitution by Simple Majority Q60. Consider the following regarding Appointment of Supreme Court judges:
   3. Judges of the Supreme Court of are appointed by the President.
   4. Executive has the primacy in appointment of Judges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q61. Ratna Prabha Committee is associated with which of the following State? (a) Karnataka (b) Haryana (c) Assam (d) Rajasthan

Q62. With reference to Equality of Opportunity provided in Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. Reservation of appointments cannot be made in favour of any backward class of citizens.
2. There shall be equal opportunity for citizens in matters relating to “appointment to any office” under the State. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q63. MCA 21 is associated with which of the following Ministry of Government of India? (a) Ministry of Corporate Affairs (b) Ministry of Human Resource Development (c) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmer Welfare (d) Ministry of External Affairs Q64. "Yukiva" is an initiative of which of the following? (a) Min of HRD (b) Department of Science and technology (c) ISRO (d) CSIR Q65. With reference to the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements:
3. It is a single member body.
4. Chief Election Commissioner cannot be removed from his office except in same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q66. With reference to the Payment and Settlement Act, 2007, consider the following statements:
   1. It authorises Reserve Bank of India to constitute Board for Regulation & Supervision of Payment & Settlement Systems (BPSS)
   2. BPSS is the highest policy making body on payment systems in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q67. Justice Srikrishna Committee (2018) is associated with? (a) Digital payments (b) Banking Reform (c) Data Protection (d) Western Ghats Q68. Consider the following statements related to Opinion and Exit Polls in India:
   3. The publication of Opinion Poll results is completely prohibited in India.
   4. In a multi phase elections, the exit results can be published after the end of polling in the first phase. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q69. Consider the following statements:
   5. Article 340 empowers President for appointment of a Commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes.
   6. Justice G. Rohini Commission intends to examine the sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2

Q77. Consider the following statements:

1. Hindi in Devanagari script is the national language of India.
2. There are 22 languages provided for under the eighth schedule of the Indian constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q78. Consider the following statements about Crime and Criminal Tracking Network System (CCTNS):
3. It’s implementation is monitored by National Crime Records Bureau
4. CCTNS is a Mission Mode Project under the National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) of Govt. of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q79. Which among the following could be the implications of Drugs and Clinical Trial Rules, 2019?
5. It would lead to faster approval for the new drugs.
6. The clinical drug trials for the drugs approved and marketed in other countries may be exempted in India.
7. The patients undergoing clinical trials would not be able to seek compensation due to adverse impacts. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q80. Consider the following statements related to Right to Education Act, 2009: 1. It provides for free and compulsory education to the children in the age- group (6-14) years. 2. It provides for minimum 33% seats to be reserved in the private schools for the benefit of the economically poor sections. 3. It provides for guidelines for the school infrastructure and teacher-student ratio. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q81. Which of the recently constituted cabinet committees is to be chaired by Prime Minister? 1. Committee in Investment & Growth 2. Committee for Employment and Skill Development Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 or 2 Q82. In the recently constituted Cabinet Committees, the Prime Minister heads which of the following Cabinet committees? 1. Appointments Committee of the Cabinet 2. Cabinet committee on Economic Affairs 3. Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs 4. Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q83. Consider the following statements with respect to National Testing Agency (NTA):

1. NTA is an autonomous and self- sustained premier testing organization to conduct entrance examinations for higher educational institutions.
2. NTA aims to undertake research on educational, professional and testing systems to identify gaps in the knowledge systems and take steps for bridging them.
3. NTA is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the above Q84. With respect to recognition of a national party, consider the following statements:
4. Constitution has provided the conditions for recognition of a national party.
5. Any party recognised as a state party in 2 or more states will be eligible to be considered as a national party. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q85. With regards to Citizenship provisions provided in the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
6. Parliament has the power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship.
7. Continuance of the rights of citizenship is subject to the provisions of any law that may be made by Parliament and/or State legislature.
8. Changes to provisions of Citizenship by Parliament is beyond the purview of the Supreme Court of India. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q86. Which of the following are means to acquire Citizenship of India?
   1. Registration
   2. Citizenship by incorporation of territory
   3. Naturalization Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q87. Which of the following are members of the Cabinet Committee on Security?
   4. Prime Minster of India
   5. National Security Advisor
   6. Minister of Finance & Corporate Affairs
   7. Minister of External Affairs Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 2 only Q88. Consider the following statements related to The Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Act, 2019:
   8. It provides for the expanded definition of Aadhaar to include the 16 Digit Virtual ID.
   9. It introduces the concept of offline verification of the Aadhaar number.
   10. It does not allow the child to opt out of Aadhaar upon attaining the age of 18 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q89. Consider the following statements related to Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF):

Q97. Consider the following statements about National Human Rights Commission:

1. It is a statutory body.
2. Its members are removed on grounds of proved misbehaviour and incapacity.
3. It’s members are eligible to be appointed as governor of a state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q98. Which among the following criteria is/are adopted by the 14th Finance Commission for the horizontal distribution of taxes among the states?
4. Population (1971 Census)
5. Demographic Change (2011 Census)
6. Fiscal Discipline
7. Income Distance Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q99. Consider the following statements related to Finance Commission:
8. It is a permanent Constitutional body set up under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.
9. It has been set up to address the vertical and horizontal imbalances in the finances of the Centre and States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q100. With reference to National Housing Bank, consider the following statement:
10. It is a statutory organization wholly owned by Reserve Bank of India. 2. It lends directly for projects undertaken by public housing agencies for housing. 3. It grants home loan directly to individuals. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q101. Which of the following statements with regards to Quality Council of India is/are correct? 1. It is both the National Standards Body of India & the Accreditation Authority in India 2. QCI directly receives any consumer complaints regarding any quality problem Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q102. Which of the following are correctly matched? Topic List under Schedule 7
11. Regulation and development of Inter-state rivers Union List
12. Water Supplies State List
13. Irrigation & canals Concurrent List Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q103. Consider the following statements about PM-STAIC. 1. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India 2. It has replaced the scientific Advisory committee to the PM Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q104. Consider the following statements about National food Security Act,

2014. The responsibility to identify eligible households is of the Central government.

2015. It has subsumed the Antyodaya Anna Yojana. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q105. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of Indian Constitution has been provided in which of the following? (a) Preamble and Fundamental Rights (b) Preamble and Directive principles of state policy (c) Fundamental Rights and Directive principles of state policy (d) None of the above Q106. Consider the following statements related to Other Backward Classes

2016. 27% reservation to them has been provided on the basis of the recommendation of First Backward Class Commission.

2017. Inadequate representation is a criterion for identification of OBCs Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q107. Consider the following statements about Scheduled Castes:

2018. List of scheduled castes are provided in the constitution itself.

2019. Only parliament can modify the list of scheduled castes in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q108. Government of India Act, 1935 provided for which of the following? 1. Public Service Commission. 2. Establishment of Federation and Accession of Indian States. 3. Power of Governor to issue proclamations in case of failure of constitutional machinery. 4. Chief Commissioner’s Provinces Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q109. Consider the following statements: 1. The article 239A was added by 14th Constitutional amendment. 2. Article 239AA deals with the governance of National Capital Territory of Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q110. Consider the following statements related to Inner Line Permit: 1. It is provided under the Foreigners (Restricted Area) order 1963. 2. It is applicable in Nagaland, Mizoram and Tripura. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q111. With reference to Special Provisions relating to Scheduled Caste in Indian

2. Supreme court does not have original Jurisdiction regarding Inter State River Water Disputes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q119. The Tenth Schedule provides an exemption wherein a person shall not be disqualified if he by reason of his election to such office, voluntarily gives up the membership to his political party. What are the exempted Offices under Tenth Schedule?
3. Speaker of the House of the People
4. Deputy Chairman of the Council of States
5. Chairman of the Legislative Council of a State
6. Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of a State Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q120. With reference to Tenth Schedule, consider the following statements:
7. The Chairman or the Speaker of a House may direct that any wilful contravention by any person of the rules may be dealt in the same manner as a breach of privilege of the House.
8. If any question arises over disqualification, the decision of the Chairman or the Speaker of such House shall be final.
9. No court shall have any jurisdiction in respect of any matter connected with the disqualification of a member of a House Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q121. India enacted protection of Plant Variety and Farmer's Right Act 2001 to comply with agreements of which of the following organisation? (a) UNCTAD (b) FAO (c) WTO (d) UNFCCC Q122. Consider the following statements about Protection of Plant Variety and Farmer's Rights Act 2001:
   1. India enacted this Act to comply with the TRIPS agreement of WTO
   2. It grants Intellectual property Rights to Plant breeders and researchers only, for developing new plant varieties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q123. With reference to Law Commission, consider the following statements:
   3. Constitution on India does not provide for creation of a Law Commission
   4. It is currently constituted through an Executive Order Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q124. Consider the following statements:
   5. The advisory of the Law Commission is non-binding on the Government
   6. It is neither a permanent body nor a statutory body Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q125. Consider the following statements:

1. National Register of Citizens is currently being formed throughout the North Eastern States to expel illegal foreigners
2. Foreigners Tribunal are constituted in a State by the Chief Justice of a High Court based on recommendation by the Governor of that State Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q126. Which of the following correctly describes the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)? (a) It is a statutory body that regulate the securities market (b) It is a non-statutory body that regulates the Non-Banking Finance Companies (c) It is a constitutional body that is empowered to audit all expenses of the union or state governments (d) It is a regulatory body that regulates the chit funds, Nidhi companies and securities market Q127. Which of the following are correct about the EVMs?
3. They are manufactured in both public as well as private sector.
4. VVPAT slips are collected by the voters as proof of voting. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q128. Which of the following are financial Committees of the parliament?
5. Public Accounts committee
6. Estimates committee
7. Committee on Public sector Undertakings Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q129. Consider the following statements:
   1. Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of five years.
   2. He/she shall be eligible for re- appointment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q130. Consider the following statements:
   3. A bill pending the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
   4. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine-die
   5. On prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the Lok Sabha Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q131. Consider the following statements:
   6. Election Commission is a Constitutional body while Central Information Commission is a statutory body
   7. The Election Commission of India is exempted from the purview of the Right to Information Act, 2005
   8. The decision of the Central Information Commission is binding Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q132. Which of the following Directive principle was added by the 42nd Constitution Amendment act? (a) Providing equal justice and free legal aid