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IAHSS (FULL STUDY GUIDE) WITH QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS
Which of the following is NOT one of the classifications of healthcare organizations in Chapter one? A. Propriety or for-profit. B. Not-for-profit. C. Government-supported. D. Individual healthcare. D. Individual healthcare. Which of the following is NOT a risk issue for healthcare? A. Drugs are used and stored in the facility. B. Mostly female staff. C. High percentage of technical and professional staff. D. Publicly accessible and many doors must remain open. C. High percentage of technical and professional staff. Which of the following is usually at the top of the organizational chart? A. Board of Directors. B. Department leaders. C. Assistant administrators. D. Vice presidents. A. Board of Directors Which of the following statements best describes employees? A. Medical staff contracted by the facility. B. All staff directly employed by the facility. C. Volunteers who donate their time. D. Contracted persons. B. All staff directly employed by the facility. Security uses senior management's endorsement to build what kind of program? A. Strong and effective.
B. A program that works in a small part of the facility. C. Generally effective. D. Strong and simple. A. Strong and effective. How should friendships and inter-personal relationships between security officers and staff members from other departments be treated? A. Discouraged. B. Encouraged. C. Encouraged but monitored. D. Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism. D. Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism. Which of the following allows a department to assess its cost-effectiveness within an organization? A. Crime analysis. B. Risk assessments. C. Bench-marking. D. Evaluation surveys. C. Bench-marking. What should the most primary overriding concern of any security department be? A. Its image. B. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility. C. The goals and mission of the entity employing the security services. D. Cost-effectiveness. B. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility. Which of the following are skills a security professional should have and use at all times? A. Good observation skills. B. good communication skills. C. Tolerance. D. All of the above. D. All of the above.
Which of the following is NOT an example of undesirable behavior and demeanor in a security officer? A. Bad attitude. B. Dishonesty. C. Impoliteness. D. Confidence. D. Confidence. What is the relationship between employees and management sometimes called? A. Employee relations. B. Confidentiality. C. Family interaction. D. Tense conversation. A. Employee relations. Which of the following may union members NOT do during picketing? A. Carry signs. B. Protest management decisions. C. Block entrances to the building. D. Congregate outside the facility. C. Block entrances to the building. Which of the following is NOT a true statement about customers' perceptions of their experience? A. Interaction is subject to personal interpretation. B. Interaction can only be perceived by words stated. C. Interaction is affected by body language. D. Interaction is affected by all of your actions. B. Interaction can only be perceived by words stated. Which of the following is NOT one of the three powerful, personal reasons to provide great customer service? A. More job satisfaction. B. Less stress and hassle.
C. Trying to impress your supervisor. D. More job success. C. Trying to impress your supervisor. Which of the following describes the main objective of good customer service? A. To make the customer walk away with a positive feeling. B. To help the customer see that someone tried, even though though the customer,s wants were not met. C. To make the customer think no one cares about the concern raised by the customer. D. To help the customer walk away with a neutral feeling. A. To make the customer walk away with a positive feeling. Which of the following is the definition of a customer? A. External paying customer. B. Internal customer. C. Non-paying external customer. D. Anyone with whom you interact. D. Anyone with whom you interact. Which of the following is NOT a common technique to use while providing good customer service. A. Acknowledge the customer's needs. B. Use inappropriate body language. C. Provide alternatives. D. Say thank you. B. Use inappropriate body language. The Joint Commission requires that risk assessments be conducted how often? A. Every two years. B. Every six months. C. Every year. D. Monthly. C. Every year.
C. Allowing Demonstrations. D. Techniques used to address unlawful public assemblies. D. Techniques used to address unlawful public assemblies. Which of the following is NOT a stage of team development? A. Forming. B. Ending. C. Norming. D. Storming B. Ending. Failure of teams can usually be attributed to what? A. No clearly defined purpose or goals. B. Lack of employee buy-in to teams. C. Employees conditioned to value individual achievement. D. Any of the above. D. Any of the above. Which of the following is NOT an opportunity derived from patrol? A. Getting to know the community. B. Establishing positive relationships and partnerships. C. Improving communications. D. Using the security vehicle to go off site. D. Using the security vehicle to go off site. Which is the most common patrol approach? A. Inconspicuous. B. Routine. C. Conspicuous. D. Foot. C. Conspicuous. Which of the following are the three key elements of a good patrol. A. Hearing, documentation and memory. B. Observation, perception and memory.
C. Perception, memory and documentation. D. Time, memory and perception. B. Observation, perception and memory. Which type of patrol covers all areas equally with high visibility? A. Selective. B. Directed. C. Vehicle. D. Routine. D. Routine. Which one of these is an example of something you should do while patrolling? A. Let employees know you are in the area. B. Get careless. C. Be a hero unnecessarily. D. Get separated from your equipment. A. Let employees know you are in the area. What patient information can be given to the security officer by a clinician A. Clinicians are never allowed to release any patient information to anyone. B. only patient information of interest to the security officer. C. Only patient information that is critical to the performance of the security officer. D. None of the above. C. Only patient information that is critical to the performance of the security officer. What should facility employees do when they hear an announcement of a child abduction. A. Leave their offices, go out the closest door, and assemble in the street. B. Go to their assigned areas (doors,stairs, elevators, etc.), look for anyone with any item that could be hiding the child, and stop and question them. C. Call the security office and volunteer to help if needed. D. Stay inside their office and out of the away. B. Go to their assigned areas (doors,stairs, elevators, etc.), look for anyone with any item that could be hiding the child, and stop and question them.
B. In the cafeteria or near an entrance. C. In the gift shop. D. Looking for the morgue. B. In the cafeteria or near an entrance. Which of the following should a security officer NOT do when interacting with a visitor? A. Be aware of the visitor's emotional state. B. Use sarcasim. C. Treat the visitor with respect. D. Show empathy. B. Use sarcasm. Which accreditation body mandates the provision of a secure healthcare environment? A. The Joint Commission. B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)" C. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA). D. American Society of Healthcare Engineers. (ASHE). A. The Joint Commission. Generally, a security officer does what during a robbery? A. Confronts the criminal. B. Observes and reports. C. Enters the area with the police. D. Leaves the area unattended. B. Observes and reports. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of a protective vest? A. Relative short life. B. Expense. C. Discomfort and restrictiveness. D. Avoiding or minimizing injury. D. Avoiding or minimizing injury.
Which ofthe following items is NOT security equipment? A. Flashlight. B. Portable radio. C. Handcuffs. D. CPR pocket mask. D. CPR pocket mask. Which factor can contribute to behavior escalation in a patient? A. Short wait periods. B. Calm atmosphere. C. Food selection. D. Attire. C. Food selection. Which of the following does NOT apply when an officer has decided to use force for self-defense or to defend another person? A. Must be reasonable. B. Must be prudent. C. Must be able to inflict pain. D. Must be defensible. C. Must be able to inflict pain. Which of the following is a professional attribute? A. Image. B. Posture. C. Attitude. D. Initiative. E. All of the above. E. All of the above. The self-disciplined officer does NOT do which of the following? A. Take an interest in the job. B. Look for ways to improve safety. C. Call a routine duty a waste of time. D. Look for ways to improve recommended procedures.
C. Control of distance. During a contact, what is the general recommended distance between you and the individual. A. 2 to 4 feet. B. 4 to 6 feet. C. 6 to 10 feet. D. 10 feet or more. B. 4 to 6 feet. What is your primary goal on using tactical evaluation? A. To determine where to approach a subject. B. To determine the legality of intervening between two people who are fighting. C. To determine if the design of a waiting room in conducive to security needs. D. To determine the level of threat. D. To determine the level of threat. Which of the following do the initials CPTED stand for? A. Crime prevention through environmental design. B. Crime prevention through experimental. Design. C. Campus prevention through environmental design. D. Critical performance through environmental design. A. Crime prevention through environmental design. What is the force continuum? A. The force applied by an officer to a subject to meet the continuing escalation of force. B. The force that officers use on non-compliant persons. C. A form used to report on incidents involving use of force. D. None of the above. A. The force applied by an officer to a subject to meet the continuing escalation of force. What is the overall goal in using any physical intervention? A. To cause pain to a subject refusing your directions. B. To pursue, seek compliance, or impede a subject.
C. To stop people running from you. D. To show fellow staff members you are effective at your job. B. To pursue, seek compliance, or impede a subject. Which of the following does NOT describe how security can staff the emergency department or a behavioral patient care unit? A. 24/7 coverage. B. Supplementation by police. C. As-needed coverage D. Security has no role in these areas. D. Security has no role in these areas. All investigations seek answers to how many fundamental questions? A. Eight. B. Three. C. Six. D. Four. C. Six. Which of the following is NOT one of the security officer's cardinal responsibilities regarding conducting an interview? A. Impartiality. B. Impatience. C. Sensitivity. D. Confidentiality. B. Impatience. Which of the following types of questions should NOT be used in an interview? A. Leading. B. Open ended. C. Includes an option. D. Specific. A. Leading. Which governing body's legal statute governs whether an interview may be tape- recorded?
C. Outlook, skills, knowledge. D. Attitude, skills, knowledge. D. Attitude, skills, knowledge. Which of the following is in a medical record? A. Information about physical health. B. Information about family relationships. C. Information about sexual behavior. D. Information about substance abuse. E. all of the above. E. all of the above. A security officer should carry a notebook for all of the following reasons except which one? A. To write down all the facts for an incident report. B. To keep a list of emergency telephone numbers. C. To note safety hazards. D. To keep track of food orders. D. To keep track of food orders. A warrant is issued by whom? A. A law enforcement officer. B. a judicial officer. C. A prosecutor. D. A defense attorney. B. a judicial officer. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic steps in report writing? A. Gather information. B. Record information. C. Write the report. D. Examine the report. D. Examine the report. Define ADA. A. Americans with Discounts Act.
B. Americans with Disabilities Act. C. America without Discomfort Act. D. Americans with Disabilities Action. B. Americans with Disabilities Act. When should reports be written? A. By the end of the week. B. By the end of the shift. C. By the end of the month. D. By the end of the next day. B. By the end of the shift. Which of the following is NOT a time of heightened risk in an emergency department or behavioral patient care unit? A. During meal delivery and consumption. B. Voluntary hospitalization. C. During the transportation of the patient. D. Involuntary hospitalization. B. Voluntary hospitalization. In any trial, who is the trier of law? A. The prosecutor. B. The defense attorney. C. The judge. D. The jury. C. The judge. In criminal law, how must guilt be determined. A. Beyond a reasonable doubt. B. By the preponderance of evidence. C. By that degree of proof which is more probable than not. D. By the prosecutor.. A. Beyond a reasonable doubt. Which of the following is NOT one of the most common forms used by security officers in reporting incidents.?
A. Administration. B. Human resources. C. Public relations. D. Nutrition services. D. Nutrition services. Which external groups should NOT be provided a copy of a security incident report? A. Insurance company. B. Corporate attorney. C. Law enforcement. D. Newspaper. D. Newspaper. The average length of a patient stay in an acute care hospital is how long? A. 25 to 30 days B. 3 to 6 days. C. 10 to 12 days D. 15 to 20 days. A. 25 to 30 days Who is the patient's advocate during a hospital stay? A. Physician. B. Social services. C. Admitting clerk. D. Nurse. D. Nurse. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) is a division of which of the following? A. The Joint Commission. B. Occupational Safety and Health Services (OSHA)" C. US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) D. Long term acute care (LTAC) hospital. C. US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS
Which of the following are credentialed to admit patients to the hospital? A. Interns. B. Attending physicians. C. Hospitalists. D. Residents B. Attending physicians. Which type of unit takes a patient who no longer requires specific medical treatment on an inpatient basis but cannot be returned home? A. Transition unit. B. Intensive care unit. C. Medical surgical unit. D. Step-down unit. A. Transition unit. Which of the following are examples of schedule II substances? A. Heroin, marijuana, methadone. B. Morphine, cocaine, methadone. C. Codeine, Vicodin, Oxycontin. D. Darvon, Valium, Xanax. B. Morphine, cocaine, methadone. Which of the following staff may enter the compounding area in a pharmacy? A. Housekeeping. B. Licensed pharmacist. C. Pharmacy secretary. D. Pharmacy technician. B. Licensed pharmacist. Which of the following defines over-the-counter medications? A. Anything that one can inject, inhale, or absorb into the body that is designed to improve a condition. B. Remedies or cures. C. Do not require a prescription and are generally displayed on the consumer
