Download IAHSS Basic Training for Healthcare Security Officers Exam Study Guide and more Exams Sociology in PDF only on Docsity!
SECURITY OFFICERS
EXAM STUDY GUIDE LATEST UPDATED 2025/2026.
100% CERTIFIED BY EXPERT
Which of the following is NOT one of the classifications of healthcare organizations? A. Proprietary or for-profit B. Not for-profit C. Government-supported D. Individual healthcare - ansD. INDIVIDUAL HEALTHCARE is NOT one of the classifications of healthcare organizations. Which of the following is NOT a risk issue for healthcare? A. Drugs are used and stored in the facility B. Mostly female staff C. High percentage of technical and professional staff D. Publicly accessible and many doors must remain open - ansC. HIGH PERCENTAGE OF TECHNICAL AND PROFESSIONAL STAFF is NOT a risk issue for healthcare. Which of the following is usually at the top of the organizational chart? A. Board of directors B. Department leaders C. Assistant Administrators D. Vice Presidents - ansA. BOARD OF DIRECTORS is usually at the top of the organizational chart. Which of the following statements best describes employees? A. Medical staff contracted by the facility B. All staff directly employed by the facility C. Volunteers who donate their time D. Contracted persons - ansB. ALL STAFF EMPLOYED DIRECTLY BY THE FACILITY best describes employees. Security uses senior management's endorsement to build what kind of a program? A. Strong and effective B. A program that works in a small part of the facility C. Generally effective D. Strong and simple - ansA. Security uses senior management's endorsement to build a STRONG AND EFFECTIVE program. How should friendships and inter-personal relationships between security officers and staff members from other departments be treated? A. Discouraged B. Encouraged C. Encouraged, but monitored D. Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism - ansD. Friendships and inter-personal relationships between security officers and staff members from other departments should be ENCOURAGED, BUT SECURITY STAFF EDUCATED ABOUT ETHICS AND AVOIDING FAVORITISM. Which of the following allows a department to assess its cost-effectiveness within an organization? A. Crime analysis B. Risk assessment C. Benchmarking
SECURITY OFFICERS
EXAM STUDY GUIDE LATEST UPDATED 2025/2026.
100% CERTIFIED BY EXPERT
D. Evaluation surveys - ansC. BENCHMARKING allows a department to assess its cost- effectiveness within an organization. What must the primary overriding concern of any security department be? A. Its image B. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility. C. The goals and mission of the entity employing the security services D. Cost-effectiveness - ansB. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility must the primary overriding concern of any security department. Which of the following are skills a security professional should have and use at all times? A. Good observation skills B. Good communications skills C. Tolerance D. All of the Above - ansD. ALL OF THE ABOVE: A security professional should have and use GOOD OBSERVATION SKILLS, GOOD COMMUNICATIONS SKILLS AND TOLERANCE at all times. Why are vendors potentially a high security risk to a healthcare facility? A. Vendors often have access to sensitive areas yet staff of the healthcare organization may know very little about vendors' backgrounds B. Vendors typically drive large vehicles that can conceal large amounts of stolen property or contraband. C. Competing vendors may clash at a facility D. Vendors may be bringing in high-demand products that could be targeted for theft. - ansA. Vendors are potentially a high security risk to a healthcare facility because VENDORS OFTEN HAVE ACCESS TO SENSITIVE AREAS YET STAFF OF THE HEALTHCARE ORGANIZATION MAY KNOW VERY LITTLE ABOUT VENDORS' BACKGROUNDS. In the patient- and family-centered care philosophy, who determines which individuals are part of the patient's family? A. Patient's parents or legal guardians B. Nursing staff C. Attending physician D. The patient, provided he or she is developmentally mature and competent to do so. - ansD. In the patient- and family-centered care philosophy, THE PATIENT, determines which individuals are part of the patient's family, PROVIDED HE OR SHE IS DEVELOPMENTALLY MATURE AND COMPETENT TO DO SO. Which of the following is NOT an example of an external customer? A. Patients B. Vendors C. Employees D. Regulatory agencies - ansC. EMPLOYEES is not an example of an external customer. Which of the following does NOT help the security uniform communicate an appropriate message to the public?
SECURITY OFFICERS
EXAM STUDY GUIDE LATEST UPDATED 2025/2026.
100% CERTIFIED BY EXPERT
though the customer's wants were not met C. To make the customer think that no one cares about the concern raised by the customer D. To help the customer walk away with a neutral feeling - ansA. The main objective of good customer service is TO MAKE THE CUSTOMER WALK AWAY WITH A POSITIVE FEELING [about the encounter]. Which of the following is the definition of a customer? A. External paying customer B. Internal customer C. Non-paying external customer D. Anyone with whom you interact - ansD. A customer is defined as ANYONE WITH WHOM YOU INTERACT. Which of the following is NOT a common technique to use when providing good customer service? A. Acknowledge the customer's needs B. Use inappropriate body language C. Provide alternatives D. Say thank you - ansB. USING INAPPROPRIATE BODY LANGUAGE is NOT a common technique to use when providing good customer service. Which of the following is NOT a true statement? A. Team building encourages employee involvement in planning, problem solving, and decision making within the organization. B. Team building promotes a better understanding of decisions. C. Team building rarely contributes to support for ownership of decisions, processes, and changes D. Active participation on teams can engage employees - ansC. Team building rarely contributes to support for ownership of decisions, processes, and changes is NOT a true statement. Which of the following is NOT an ongoing, or functional, work team? A. A project team B. A natural team C. A management team D. A process improvement team - ansA. A PROJECT TEAM is NOT an ongoing, or functional, work team? To be successful, teams need which of the following? A. Access to resources B. Clearly defined boundaries C. Access to people who know D. Clearly defined purposes and goals
SECURITY OFFICERS
EXAM STUDY GUIDE LATEST UPDATED 2025/2026.
100% CERTIFIED BY EXPERT
E. All of the above - ansE. ALL OF THE ABOVE, To be successful teams need access to resources, clearly defined boundaries, access to people who know and clearly defined purposes and goals. Which of the following is NOT a stage of team development? A. Forming B. Ending C. Norming D. Storming - ansB.ENDING is Not a state of team development. Failure of teams can usually be attributed to what? A. No clearly defined purpose or goals B. Lack of employee buy-in to team building C. Employees conditioned to value individual achievement D. Any of the above - ansA. Failure of teams can usually be attributed to NO CLEARLY DEFINED PURPOSE OR GOALS. Which of the following is NOT an opportunity derived from patrol? A. Getting to know the community B. Establishing positive relationships and partnerships C. Improving communications D. Using the security vehicle to go offsite - ansD. USING THE SECURITY VEHICLE TO GO OFFSITE is NOT an opportunity derived from patrol. Which is the most common patrol approach? A. Inconspicuous B. Routine C. Conspicuous D. Foot - ansC. CONSPICUOUS is most common patrol approach. Which of the following are the three key elements of a good patrol? A. Hearing, documentation, and memory B. Observation, perception and memory C. Perception, memory, and documentation D. Time, memory and perception - ansB. OBSERVATION, PERCEPTION, AND MEMORY are the three key elements of a good patrol. What type of patrol covers all areas equally with high visibility? A. Selective B. Directed C. Vehicle D. Routine - ansD. ROUTINE is the type of patrol that covers all areas equally with high visibility. Which of the following is an example of something you should do while patrolling? A. Let employees know you are in the area B. Get careless C. Be a hero unnecessarily D. Get separated from your equipment - ansA. LETTING EMPLOYEES KNOW THAT YOU ARE IN THE AREA is an example of something you should do while patrolling. Security Officers must interact in a professional manner with which group of people? A. Patients
SECURITY OFFICERS
EXAM STUDY GUIDE LATEST UPDATED 2025/2026.
100% CERTIFIED BY EXPERT
A. Relative short life B. Expense C. Discomfort and restrictiveness D. Avoiding or minimizing injury - ansD. AVOIDING OR MINIMIZING INJURY is NOT a disadvantage of a protective vest. Which of the following items is NOT security equipment? A. Flashlight B. Portable radio C. Handcuffs D. CPR pocket mask - ansD. CPR POCKET MASK is NOT security equipment. Which of the following does NOT apply when an officer has decided to use force for self- defense or to defend another person? A. Must be reasonable B. Must be prudent C. Must be able to inflict pain D. Must be defensible - ansC. MUST BE ABLE TO INFLICT PAIN does NOT apply when an officer has decided to use force for self-defense or to defend another person. Which of the following is a professional attribute? A. Image B. Posture C. Attitude D. Initiative E. All of the above - ansE. ALL OF THE ABOVE: IMAGE, POSTUIRE, ATTITUDE, AND INITIATIVE are all professional attributes. The self-disciplined officer does NOT do which of the following? A. Take an interest in the job B. Look for ways to improve safety C. Call a routine duty a waste of time D. Look for ways to improve recommended procedures - ansC. The self-disciplined officer does NOT CALL A ROUTINE DUTY A WASTE OF TIME. Non-verbal communication accounts for what percentage of communication? A. 57 percent B. 49 percent C. 89 percent D. 94 percent - ansD. Non-verbal communication accounts for 94 percent of communication. Which organization developed a code of ethics for healthcare security? A. International Association for Healthcare Safety and Security (IAHSS) B. National Fire Protection Agency (NFPA) C. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) D. Department of Public Health (DPH) - ansA. INTERNATIONAL ASSOCIATION FOR HEALTHCAE SAFETY AND SECURITY (IAHSS) developed a code of ethics for healthcare security. Which of the following is NOT an IAHSS training course? A. Basic certification for healthcare security officer B. Advanced certification for healthcare security officer
SECURITY OFFICERS
EXAM STUDY GUIDE LATEST UPDATED 2025/2026.
100% CERTIFIED BY EXPERT
C. Supervisory certification for healthcare security personnel D. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) - ansD. CARDIOPULMINARY RESUSCITATION (CPR) is NOT an IAHSS training course. When speaking with a patient, visitor, or staff member, you should always be mindful of what characteristics of your speech? A. Timing, velocity, and character B. Tenor, vibration, and cannon C. Tone, volume, and cadence D. Tempo, variation, and candor - ansC. When speaking with a patient, visitor, or staff member, you should always be mindful of these characteristics of speech: TONE, VOLUME AND CADENCE. What is the key factor in tactical deployment? A. Availability of other officers B. Waiting for supervisor C. Control of distance D. Time - ansC. CONTROL OF DISTANCE is the key factor in tactical deployment. During a contact, what is the general recommended distance between you and the individual? A. 2 to 4 feet B. 4 to 6 feet C. 6 to 10 feet D. 10 feet or more - ansB. During contact, 4 to 6 feet is the general recommended distance between you and the individual. What is the primary goal in using tactical evaluation? A. To determine where to approach a subject B. To determine the legality of intervening between two people who are fighting C. To determine if the design of a waiting room is conducive to security needs D. To determine the level of threat - ansD. TO DETERMINE THE LEVEL OF THREAT is the primary goal in using tactical evaluation. What is the force continuum? A. The force applied by an officer to a subject to meeting the continuing escalation of force B. The force that officers use on non-compliant persons C. A form used to report on incidents involving the use of force D. None of the above - ansD. NONE OF THE ABOVE What is the overall goal in using any physical intervention? A. To cause pain to a subject refusing your directions B. To pursue, seek compliance, or impeded a subject C. To stop people running from you D. To show fellow staff members you are effective at your job - ansB. The overall goal in using any physical intervention is TO PURSUE, SEEK COMPLIANCE OR IMPEDE A SUBJECT. All investigations seek answers to how many fundamental questions? A. Eight B. Three C. Six
SECURITY OFFICERS
EXAM STUDY GUIDE LATEST UPDATED 2025/2026.
100% CERTIFIED BY EXPERT
A. Security incident report B. Supplemental security report C. Investigation security report D. Auto accident report - ansC. INVESTIGATION SECURITY REPORT is NOT one of the most common forms used by security officers in reporting incidents. When should reports be written? A. By the end of the week B. By the end of the shift C. By the end of the month D. By the end of the next day - ansB. Reports should be written BY THE END OF THE SHIFT. A security officer should carry a note book for all of the following reasons except which one? A. To write down all of the facts for an incident report B. To keep a list of emergency telephone numbers C. To note safety hazards D. To keep track of food orders. - ansD. TO KEEP TRACK OF FOOD ORDERS Which of the following does NOT regulate and accredit healthcare facilities? A. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) B. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS) C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) D. The Joint Commission (TJC) - ansB. IAHSS does NOT regulate and accredit healthcare facilities. Which agency provides guidelines on preventing workplace violence? A. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) B. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS) C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) D. The Joint Commission (TJC - ansC. OSHA provides guidelines on preventing workplace violence. The general rule for keeping records is how long? A. At least five to seven years B. Permanently C. At least ten years D. At least three to five years - ansA. The general rule for keeping records is AT LEAST FIVE TO SEVEN YEARS. Which external groups should NOT be provided a copy of a security incident report? A. Insurance companies B. Corporate attorney C. Law enforcement D. Newspapers - ansD. NEWSPAPERS should NOT be provided a copy of a security incident report. Which of these departments in the healthcare organization does NOT commonly use security reports? A. Administration B. Human resources C. Public relations
SECURITY OFFICERS
EXAM STUDY GUIDE LATEST UPDATED 2025/2026.
100% CERTIFIED BY EXPERT
D. Nutrition services - ansD. The NUTRITION SERVICES department in the healthcare organization does NOT commonly use security reports. Which of the following is an example of a tort committed by a security officer that may result in civil litigation and liability? A. Excessive use of force B. False arrest C. Malicious prosecution D. All of the above - ansD. ALL OF THE ABOVE A warrant is issued by whom? A. A law enforcement officer B. A judicial officer C. A prosecutor D. A defense attorney - ansB. A warrant is issued by A JUDICIAL OFFICER. What is a misdemeanor? A. A crime punishable by imprisonment for more than a year. B. A violation of the municipal code C. Any Offense other than a felony D. A violation of the state's penal code - ansB. A misdemeanor is ANY OFFENSE OTHER THAN A FELONY. In criminal law how must guilt be determined? A. Beyond a reasonable doubt B. By the preponderance of evidence C. By that degree of proof which is more probable than not D. By the prosecutor - ansA. In criminal law guilt must be determined BEYOND A REASONABLE DOUBT. In any trial, who is the trier of law? A. The prosecutor B. The defense attorney C. The judge D. The jury - ansC. In any trial, THE JUDGE is the trier of law. Which of the following do the initials CPTED stand for? A. Crime prevention through environmental design. B. Crime prevention through experimental design C. Campus prevention through environmental design D. Critical performance through environmental design - ansA. The initials CPTED stand for CRIME PREVENTION THROUGH ENVIRONMENTAL DESIGN. Which of the following should be protected by bollards? A. Sidewalks B. Curbs C. Hydrants D. Trees - ansC. HYDRANTS should be protected by bollards. Define ADA. A. Americans with Discounts Act B. Americans with Disabilities Act C. American without Discomfort Act
SECURITY OFFICERS
EXAM STUDY GUIDE LATEST UPDATED 2025/2026.
100% CERTIFIED BY EXPERT
A. Registration B. Environmental Services C. Cashier D. Accounts Receivable - ansB. ENVIRONMENTAL SERVICES is NOT a typical function of the business office. The act of a patient using someone else's information to fraudulently obtain medical services is called what? A. Medication-seeking patient B. Suspicious activity C. Identification hijacking D. Medical identity theft - ansD. The act of a patient using someone else's information to fraudulently obtain medical services is called MEDICAL IDENTITY THEFT. Access to patient information is limited to those who "need to know" by which of the following? A. FBI B. OSHA C. HIPPA D. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS) - ansC. Access to patient information is limited to those who "need to know" by HEALTH INSURANCE PORTABILITY AND ACCOUNTABILITY ACT (HIPPA) True or false: Escorts for valuables and cash should be at the same time each day and should follow the same route to the facility. A. True B. False - ansB. FALSE Escorts for valuables and cash SHOULD NOT be at the same time each day and SHOULD NOT follow the same route to the facility. Which of the following is NOT a function security provides for the business office/financial services area? A. Patrol B. Customer relations C. Refunding payment D. Investigations - ansC. REFUNDING PAYMENT is NOT a function security provides for the business office/financial services area. Which of the following defines over-the-counter medications? A. Anything that one can inject, inhale or absorb into the body that is designed to improve a condition. B. Remedies or cures C. Do not require a prescription and are generally displayed on the consumer side of the pharmacy counter D. Controlled substances - ansC. Medications that DO NOT REQUIRE A PRESCRIPTION AND ARE GENERALLY DISPLAYED ON THE CONSUMER SIDE OF THE PHARMACY COUNTER defines over-the-counter medications. Which of the following are examples of schedule II substances? A. Heroin, marijuana, methaqualone B. Morphine, cocaine, methadone
SECURITY OFFICERS
EXAM STUDY GUIDE LATEST UPDATED 2025/2026.
100% CERTIFIED BY EXPERT
C. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin D. Darvon, Valium, Xanax - ansB. MORPHINE, COCAINE and METHADONE are examples of schedule II substances. Which of the following is NOT an example of a drug diversion method? A. Fraudulent prescription B. Falsify a patient's chart C. Keep unused drugs after surgery D. Obtain a prescription from your physician - ansD. OBTAIN A PRESCRIPTION FROM YOUR PHYSICIAN is NOT an example of a drug diversion. In which year was the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) enacted? A. 1970 B. 1972 C. 1968 D. 1984 - ansA. 1970 is the year the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) was enacted. Which of the following staff may enter the compounding area in a pharmacy? A. Housekeeping aide B. Licensed pharmacist C. Pharmacy secretary D. Pharmacy technician - ansB. The compounding area (where drugs are stored and prepared) may only be entered by, or in the presence of, A LICENSED PHARMACIST. Which of these conditions make it difficult to work effectively with behavioral patients? A. Age and ethnicity B. Reputation of the healthcare organization C. Short wait periods D. Drug and alcohol impairment - ansD. DRUG AND ALCOHOL IMPAIRMENT make it difficult to work effectively with behavioral patients. The Joint Commission requires that risk assessments be conducted how often? A. Every two years B. Every six months C. Every year D. Monthly - ansC. The Joint Commission requires that risk assessments be conducted EVERY YEAR. Which of the following is NOT a type of mental health unit? A. Closed caption B. Open C. Closed D. Outpatient - ansA. CLOSED CAPTION is NOT a type of mental health unit. Which of the following is NOT a time of heightened risk in an emergency department or behavioral patient care unit? A. During meal delivery and consumption B. Voluntary hospitalization C. During transportation of the patient D. Involuntary hospitalization - ansB. VOLUNTARY HOSPITALIZATION is NOT a time of heightened risk in an emergency department or behavioral patient care unit. Which factor can contribute to behavior escalation in a patient?
SECURITY OFFICERS
EXAM STUDY GUIDE LATEST UPDATED 2025/2026.
100% CERTIFIED BY EXPERT
D. So they can use the information to talk to security departments in other healthcare facilities. - ansB. It is important for security and clinical staff to understand the typical profile of an abductor TO DESIGN THE FACILITY'S SECURITY TO MAKE IT AS HARD AS POSSIBLE FOR THE TYPICAL ABDUCTOR TO KIDNAP A CHILD. Which of the following is a role of the National Center for Missing and Exploited Children (NCMEC)? A. Provide things that healthcare organizations can do to "harden the target" B. Develop a profile of the typical kidnapper C. Provide suggested training for nursing, security and other personnel D. None of the above E. All of the above - ansE. ALL OF THE ABOVE Who needs to be trained about the facility's system for protecting children from abduction? A. Mothers, husbands, significant others, and family B. Nursing on affected units C. Security D. All facility employees E. All of the above - ansE. ALL OF THE ABOVE When an infant abduction is suspected, what should security's first response be? A. Rust to the affected unit and interview the parent B. Call the NCMEC C. Grab the department's camera and take pictures of everyone who exits the emergency department D. Immediately go to the property exits -- doors, garages, etc. -- stop each person walking or driving out who has anything a baby could be in - ansD. When an infant abduction is suspected, security's first response should be to IMMEDIATELY GO TO THE PROPERTY EXITS AND STOP EACH PERSON WALKING OR DRIVING OUT WHO HAS ANYTHING A BABY COULD BE IN. What should facility employees do when they hear an announcement of a child abduction? A. Leave their offices, go out the closes door and assemble in the street B. Go to their assigned areas (door, stairs, elevator, etc.), look for anyone with any item that could be hiding the child, and stop and question them C. Call the security office and volunteer to help if needed D. Stay inside their offices and out of the way - ansB. When they hear an announcement of a child abduction facility employees should GO TO THEIR ASSIGNED AREAS, LOOK FOR ANYONE WITH ANY ITEM THAT COULD BE HIDING THE CHILD, AND STOP AND QUESTION THEM.
SECURITY OFFICERS
EXAM STUDY GUIDE LATEST UPDATED 2025/2026.
100% CERTIFIED BY EXPERT
Which of the following is a medical record? A. Information about physical health B. Information about family relationships C. Information about sexual behavior D. Information about substance abuse E. All of the above - ansE. ALL OF THE ABOVE Why is it important that a medical record be kept secure and confidential? A. If released, it may influence a person's ability to obtain credit, gain admission to education institutions, and gain employment B. If released, the spouse may divorce the patient C. If released, the physician may refuse to treat the patient D. It is not important and may be released to anyone. - ansA. IF RELEASED, IT MAY INFLUENCE A PERSON'S ABILITY TO OBTAIN CREDIT, GAIN ADMISSION TO EDUCATION INSTITUTIONS, AND GAIN EMPLOYMENT Which statement best describes the ways to secure the medical records department? A. Keep the doors locked B. Require all medical records to be signed out C. Only allow physicians to access the department D. Use on of the following access control systems:
- Lock and Key
- Combination locks
- Badge readers with access cards
- Biometrics - ansD. USE ONE OF THE FOLLOWING ACCESS CONTROL SYSTEMS::
- Lock and Key
- Combination locks
- Badge readers with access cards
- Biometrics What patient information can be given to the security officer by a clinician? A. Clinicians are never allowed to release any patient information to anyone. B. Only patient information of interest to the security officer C. Only patient information that is critical to the performance of the security officer's duties D. None of the above. - ansC. ONLY PATIENT INFORMATION THAT IS CRITICAL TO THE PERFORMANCE OF THE SECURITY OFFICER'S DUTIES can be given to the security officer by a clinician. Which of the following is a HIPPA violation?
SECURITY OFFICERS
EXAM STUDY GUIDE LATEST UPDATED 2025/2026.
100% CERTIFIED BY EXPERT
Which of the following defines vulnerability? A. The act of being physically wounded B. Something with the potential to be physically wounded or open to attack or damage C. Possibility of loss D. The act of being attacked - ansB. Vulnerability is defined as SOMETHING WITH THE POTENTIAL TO BE PHYSICALLY WOUNDED OR OPEN TO ATTACK OR DAMAGE. Which of the following is NOT an important risk measurement tool? A. Security inspections and surveys B. Security patrol and incident reports C. Law enforcement crime statistic reports and analyses D. Irregular patrols by untrained personnel - ansD. IRREGULAR PATROLS BY UNTRAINED PERSONNEL is NOT an important risk measurement tool. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate response to a disturbance? A. Call for medical, security backup, or local police assistance, if required B. Observe or identify the person(s) causing the disturbance, and provide area and crowd control C. Step up to the people without backup D. Notify your supervisor other appropriate facility personnel per policy - ansC. STEP UP TO THE PEOPLE WITHOUT BACKUP is NOT an appropriate response to a disturbance. Which agency issued guidelines for workplace violence? A. The Joint Commission B. OSHA C. NFPA D. American society of Healthcare Engineers (ASHE) - ansB. OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH ADMINISTRATION (OSHA) issued guidelines for workplace violence. Which of the following defines property risks? A. Lawsuits brought about by action or inaction, including negligent security or safety hazards B. Loss of staff due to perception of an unsafe environment
SECURITY OFFICERS
EXAM STUDY GUIDE LATEST UPDATED 2025/2026.
100% CERTIFIED BY EXPERT
C. The healthcare organization's inability to perform on or many of its normal functions, leading to the inability to generate income D. Damage, theft, or vandalism to buildings, equipment and supplies - ansD. Property Risks is defined as DAMAGE, THEFT, OR VANDALISM TO BUILDINGS, EQUIPMENT AND SUPPLIES. Which of the following describes the outer zone in the theory of protection? A. Generally, the boundary of the property B. Footprint of the actual structure C. Inside the structure D. Footprint of the inside of the structure - ansA. GENERALLY, THE BOUNDARY OF THE PROPERTY describes the outer zone in the theory of protection. Which of the following is NOT a common physical barrier? A. Walls B. Fencing C. Chains D. Lighting - ansD. LIGHTING is NOT a common physical barrier. Which of the following describes the basic functions of lock sets? A. Manual, office, classroom, storage and passage B. Classroom, electronic, storage, privacy and passage C. Office, classroom, storage, privacy and passage D. Keyless, office, storage, privacy and passage - ansC. OFFICE, CLASSROOM, STORAGE, PRIVACY AND PASSAGE describes the basic functions of lock sets. What three components make up the Access Control Triad? A. Identification systems, staff education and training, and badging B. Identification systems, staff education and training, and physical security safeguards C. Staff education and training, video surveillance, and physical security safeguards D. Identification systems, proprietary logo usage, and staff education and training - ansB. The three components making up the Access Control Triad are IDENTIFICATION SYSTEMS, STAFF EDUCATION AND TRAINING AND PHYSICAL SECURITY SAFEGUARDS. Which of the following greatly improves the effectiveness of an access control system? A. Signage B. Magnetic locks C. Magnetic swipe cards D. Fences - ansA. SIGNAGE greatly improves the effectiveness of an access control system. What is the number one factor in determining if the security force should be armed with firearms? A. A needs assessment B. The type of weapon C. Which state your facility is in
