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GPAT-
Q.1.Which of the following respective Phase-I and Phase-II reactions are the most common drug biotransformation reactions? (A) Oxidation and Glucuronidation (B) Reduction and Acetylation (C) Hydrolysis and Glucuronidation (D) Oxidation and Glutathion conjugation
Ans : A ( MINOR TEST 1 & MAJOR 8)
Q.2 Which one of the following drugs has positive inotropic and negative chronotropic action? (A) Dopamine (B) Epinephrine (C) Digoxin (D) Isoprenaline
Ans: C ( Semimajor 1)
Q.3 Which one of the following therapeutic classes has been proved clinically as a first line therapy for heart failure and has shown decreased hospitalization, improved symptoms and delayed disease progression? (A) Cardiac glycosides B) ACE Inhibitors (ACEIs) (C) Renin Antagonists (D) Nitrites Ans: B
Q.4 Which one of the following glucose transporters is the new drug target for the management of Type-2 diabetes mellitus? (A) Sodium glucose linked transporter-2 (SGLT2) (B) Glucose transporter-1 (GLUTl) (C) Sodium glucose linked transporter-1 (SGLTl) (D) Glucose transporter-2 (GLUT2)
ANS. A
Q.5 Which one of the following modes of HIV transmission carries highest relative risk of infection with single exposure? (A) Transfusion of blood and blood products (B) Perinatal - from mother to child (C) Sexual contacts with infected partners (D) Syringe sharing with drug addicts
Ans. A
Q.6 Which of the followings are the critical neurotransmitters playing major role in depression? (A) Acetylcholine, Norepinephrine and Dopamine
(B) Dopamine, Norepinephrine and Serotonin (C) Serotonin, Dopamine and y-Amino butyric acid (D) Acetylcholine, Serotonin and y-Amino butyric acid
Ans. B
Q.7 A 55 years old man is under DOTS treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis for the last four months. Now, he has developed symptoms of peripheral neuritis. Which one of the followings is the right addition to his therapy to manage peripheral neuritis? (A) Cyanocobalamin (B) α-Lipoic acid (C) Pyridoxine (D) Prednisolone
ANS: C (MINOR TEST 11- In that we asked about which of the following drug given to TB patient to reduce the peripheral neuritis side effect of ANTI TB drugs)
Q.8 What is the primary mechanism of action of local anesthetics? (A) Activation of ligand-gated potassium channels (B) Blockade of voltage-gated sodium channels (C) Stimulation of voltage-gated N-type calcium channels (D) Blockade of GABA-gated chloride channels
ANS. B ( MINOR TEST -3)
Q.9 Which one of the following anti-asthmatic drugs can cause convulsions and arrhythmia? (A) Prednisolone (B) Salmeterol (C) Zafirlukast (D) Theophylline
ANS.D ( SEMI MAJOR test -1)
Q.10 Which one of the following anti-arrhythmic drugs acts by inhibiting potassium, sodium and calcium channels? (A) Quinidine (B) Lignocaine (C) Amiodarone (D) Flecainide
ANS: C
Q.11 A 48 years old woman is having the symptoms of weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation, bradycardia, puffy face, lethargy and dry skin. These symptoms are suggestive of which of the followings? (A) Over use of corticosteroid (B) Hypothyroidism (C) Estrogen deficiency (D) Over use of thyroxin sodium
ANS: B
Q.12 Increased risk of hypoglycemia and weight gain is the common side effect of drugs used in the management of Type-2 diabetes mellitus. Followings are some commonly used drugs, alone or in
(C) Lower risk for extrapyramidal side effects (EPSs) (D) Greater serotonin receptor blockade than dopamine blockade
ANS: A
Q. 18 Which one of the following drugs produces significant relaxation of both venules and arterioles? (A) Hydralazine (B) Minoxidil (C) Diazoxide (D) Sodium nitroprusside
ANS: D ( MINOR TEST- 6)
Q.19 Antiviral action of purine analogues is primarily related to the followings: [P] : Inhibition of RNA synthesis [Q] : Inhibition of DNA polymerase [R] : Immunomodulation [S] : Inhibition of viral penetration Choose the correct option: (A) R is correct and Q is incorrect (B) Q is correct and S is incorrect (C) P is correct and R is incorrect (D) S is correct and P is incorrect
ANS: B
Q.20 All of the given four drugs are sympathomimetics: [P] : Adrenaline [Q]: Isoprenaline [R] : Phenylephrine [S] : Noradrenaline Choose the correct statement related to their effects on blood pressure. (A) P and Q increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure (B) Q and R increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure (C) R and S increase systolic blood pressure (D) P and S increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure
ANS: C
Q.21 All of the given four drugs are neuromuscular blocking agents. [P] : Gallamine [Q]: Succinylcholine [R] : Vecuronium [S] : d-Tubocurarine Choose the correct statement about them. (A) P and Q are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents (B) Q and R are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents (C) R and S are non-competitive neuromuscular blocking agents (D) P and S are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents
ANS: D
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Q.22 Which one of the followings is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor indicated for a variety of malignancies? (A) Imatinib (B) Paclitaxel (C) Ezetimibe (D) Mitomycin
ANS: A
Q.23 Which one of the followings is the most likely positive sign of pregnancy when detected in urine? (A) Estrogens (B) Progesterone (C.) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) (D) Corticotropic Hormone
ANS: C (MAJOR TEST - 4)
Q.24 Followings are some opioid analgesics: [P] : Morphine [Q]: Pethidine [R] : Pentazocine [S] : Fentanyl Choose the correct order of respiratory depressant propensity of these agents. (A) P>Q>R>S (B) Q>P>R>S (C) R>P>Q>S (D) S>P>Q>R
ANS: D
Q.25 Corticosteroids are administered to treat some of the given disease states: [P] : Peptic ulcer [Q] : Bronchial asthma [R] : Nephrotic syndrome [S] : Myasthenia gravis Choose the correct statement about the use of corticosteroids for the treatment of these diseases. (A) P, Q and S are treated while R is NOT (B) P, R and S are treated while Q is NOT (C) Q, R and S are treated while P is NOT (D) P, Q and R are treated while S is NOT
ANS: C
Q.26 Which one of the following statements is FALSE for fluoroquinolones? (A) These are highly effective by oral and parenteral routes (B) These are relatively more susceptible to development of resistance (C) These are effective against those bacteria that are resistant to p-lactam and aminoglycoside antibiotics (D) These are bactericidal with broad spectrum of activity
ANS: B
ANS: D (MINOR TEST -4 )
Q.33 The following characteristic properties are given in context of saponins: [P] : Saponins give precipitate by shaking with water. [Q] : Saponins are diterpenes and give foam on shaking with water. [R] : Saponins are triterpenoidal compounds and cause haemolysis of erythrocytes. [S] : They are steroidal or triterpenoidal compounds with tendency to reduce surface tension of water. Choose the correct option. (A) P is true; Q is true; R is true; S is true (B) P is false; Q is true; R is false; S is true (C) P is false; Q is true; R is true; S is true (D) P is false; Q is false; R is true; S is true
ANS: D
Q.34 Read the given statements about the constituents of Shellac: [P] : Shellolic acid, a major component of alicyclic fraction is responsible for colour. [Q]: Shellolic acid, a major component of aromatic fraction is responsible for colour. [R] : Shellolic acid is a major component of aliphatic fraction and laccaic acid is ancomponent of aromatic fraction. [S] : Aliphatic components are shellolic acid which is alicyclic and aleuratic acid which is acyclic, while laccaic acid is an aromatic colouring principle. What is the correct combination of options? (A) P is true; Q is true; R is true; S is true (B) P is false; Q is false; R is false; S is true (C) P is false; Q is false; R is true; S is true (D) P is true; Q is false; R is false; S is true
Hint: Upon mild hydrolysis shellac gives a complex mix of aliphatic and alicyclic hydroxy acids and their polymers that varies in exact composition depending upon the source of the shellac and the season of collection. The major component of the aliphatic component is aleuritic acid, whereas the main alicyclic component is shellolic acid
laccaic acid
ANS: C
Q.35 Major component of Cymbopogon citratus is citral which is utilized commercially for the followings: [P] : Synthesis of Vitamin A directly from citral [Q] : Synthesis of Vitamin A by first converting to T-ionone [R] : Synthesis of Vitamin A by first converting to T-ionone followed by conversion to a-ionone which is very important intermediate for carotenoid synthesis [S] : Synthesis of Vitamin A by first conversion of citral to T-ionone followed by conversion to P-ionone which is an important intermediate for carotenoid synthesis Which is the correct combination of options? (A) P is true; Q is true; R is true; S is true (B) P is false; Q is true; R is false; S is true (C) P is false; Q is false; R is true; S is true (D) P is false; Q is false; R is false; S is false
ANS: B
Q.36 Which one of the following constituents is reported to have anti-hepatotoxic activity? (A) Podophyllotoxin (C) Linalool (B) Andrographoloid (D) Safranal
ANS: B
Q.37 Geranial and Neral are the monoterpene aldehyde constituents of volatile oil. Read the following statements about them: [P] : Geranial and Neral are both optical isomers [Q] : Geranial and Neral are both geometric isomers [R] : Geranial has Z configuration and Neral has E configuration [S] : Geranial has E configuration and Neral has Z configuration (A) Choose the correct combination of answers for them. (B) P is false; Q is true; R is true; S is false (C) P is true; Q is false; R is true; S is true (D) P is false; Q is true; R is false; S is false
ANS: Not a single option is correct – correct answer is Q & S are correct , P & R are incorrect
Q.38 All of the followings applicable to Lignans are correct statements except for one. Identify the INCORRECT statement. (A) Lignans are formed by the dimerization of the phenylpropane moiety (B) Podophyllotoxin can be termed phytochemically as a lignan (C) Lignans can be formed by cyclization of phenylpropane nucleus (D) Lignans are the secondary metabolites formed from the Shikimic acid pathway
ANS: C
ANS: A
Q.44 Study the following statements: [P] : Lutein and zeaxanthin are flavonoids [Q]: Lutein and zeaxanthin are xanthophylls [R] : Lutein and zeaxanthin are required to control age-related macular degeneration [S] : Lutein is a flavonoid while zeaxanthin is its glycoside Choose the correct answer. (A) P is correct while Q, R and S are incorrect (B) Q and R are correct while P and S are incorrect (C) Statement P is the only correct statement (D) Statement S is the only correct statement
ANS: B
Q. 44 Choose the correct statement
[P] gpatindia.com provide information about gpat exam
[Q] gpatindia.com provide online test series for gpat preparation
[R] gpatindia.com is a informative web place for pharmacy professionals
(A) P& S correct (B) Q and R are correct (C) P & R are correct (D) All are correct
ANS. D
Q.45 Listed below are some phytoconstituents. [P] : Galactomannan [Q]: Glucomannan [R] : Barbaloin [S] : Phyllanthin Identify the constituent(s) present in Aloe vera. (A) OnlyP (B) Q and R (C) Only S (D) P and S
ANS: B
Q.46 Choose the correct answer for the binomial nomenclature of fruits of star-anise. (A) Pimpinella anisum (B) Illicium verum (C) Illicium anisatum (D) Illicium religiosum
ANS: B
Q.47 Given herewith are two statements: [P] : Digitoxin is a secondary glycoside from Digitalis purpurea
[Q]: Digitoxin is a partially hydrolysed glycoside of Purpurea glycoside A Determine the correctness of the above statements. (A) Both P and Q are true (B) P is true but Q is false (C) Both P and Q are false (D) P is false but Q is true
ANS: A
Q.48 Peruvoside is naturally obtained from one of the following plants. Identify the correct name. (A) Dioscorea (B) Ginseng (C) Liquorice (D) Thevetia
ANS: D
Q.49 One of the followings is NOT required for the initiation and maintenance of plant tissue culture. Identify that. (A) Sucrose (B) Kinetin (C) Auxin (D) Absicic acid
ANS: D (MAJOR TEST 3)
Q.50 Study the relationship between the given two statements: [P] : Capsanthin is a red coloured principle from Capscicum annum [Q]: Capsanthin is a vanillylamide of isodecenoic acid Choose the correct answer. (A) Both P and Q are correct (B) Both P and Q are incorrect (C) P is correct but Q is incorrect (D) P is incorrect but Q is correct
ANS: C
Q.51 For the equation PV = nRT to hold true for a gas, all of the following conditions are necessary EXCEPT for ONE. Identify that. (A) The molecules of gas must be of negligible volume (B) Collisions between molecules must be perfectly elastic (C) The velocities of all molecules must be equal (D) The gas must not be decomposing
ANS: C (MAJOR TEST 4)
Q.52 Atracurium besylate, a neuromuscular blocking agent, is metabolized through one of the following reactions. Identify that. (A) Hoffman elimination (B) Hoffman rearrangement (C) Michael addition (D) Claisen condensation
ANS: A (MAJOR TEST)
ANS: D (Major test)
Q.58 Which one of the following fragmentation pathways involves a double bond and a y- hydrogen in mass spectrometry? (A) a-Fission (B) p1- Fission (C) Mc-Lafferty rearrangement (D) Retro-Diel's Alder rearrangement
ANS: C (we ask que. Regarding the Mc-Lafferty rearrangement )
Q.59 Read the following statements carefully about non-aqueous titrations: [P] : Acetate ion is the strongest base capable of existence in acetic acid. [Qj: Mixtures of bases of different strengths can be analyzed by selecting a differentiating solvent for the bases. [R] : Acetic acid acts as a leveling solvent for various acids like perchloric and hydrochloric acids. [S] : Mixtures of bases of different strengths can be analyzed by selecting a leveling solvent for the bases. Choose the correct answer. (A) P and Q are true and R and S are false (B) P and S are true and R and Q are false (C) R and Q are true and P and S are false (D) R and S are true and P and Q are false
ANS: A
Q.60 Read the following statements carefully about Volhard's method: [P] : In Volhard's titration, silver ions are titrated with thiocyanates in acidic solution [Q]: Ferric ions act as indicator in Volhard's method, yielding reddish brown ferric thiocyanate [R] : Volhard's method is used to determine halides [S] : Volhard's method is a direct titration Choose the correct set of answers. (A) P, Q and R are true and S is false (B) Q, R and S are true and P is false (C) R. S and P true and Q is false (D) P, Q, R and S all are true
ANS: A
Q.61 Identify the group of enzymes that utilizes NADP or NAD as coenzymes and catalyzes biochemical reactions by the transfer of electrons from one molecule to another. (A) Isomerases (B) Oxidoreductases (C) Transferases (D) Ligases
ANS: B
Q.62 Glucose is the only source of energy for one of the followings. Identify that. A) Cardiac cells (B) Nephrons (C) RBCs (D) Thrombocytes
ANS: C
Q.63 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r]: Assertion [a] : Halogens are unusual in their effect on electrophilic aromatic substitution; they are deactivating yet ortho-, para - directing. Reason [r] : In electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions, reactivity is controlled by stronger inductive effect while orientation is controlled by the stronger hyperconjugation effect. Choose the correct statement. (A) [a] is true but [r] is false (B) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a] (C) Both [a] and [r] are false (D) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correct reason for [a]
ANS: A ( MAJOR TEST 3)
Q.64 Given are the four statements about dehydration of alcohols to give alkenes: [P] : Ease of dehydration of alcohols takes place in the order 3° > 2° > 1°. [Q]: Dehydration is acid catalyzed. [R]: Orientation of the alkene formed is strongly Saytzeff. [S] : Dehydration is irreversible. Choose the correct combination of statements. (A) P and Q are correct while R and S are not (B) P, Q and R all three are correct but S is not (C) P, Q, R and S all are correct (D) P, Q and S all three are correct but R is not
ANS: B
Q.65 Choose the correct statement regarding the synthesis of phenyl ra-propyl ether. (A) Phenyl re-propyl ether is prepared from n-propyl bromide and sodium phenoxide (B) Phenyl re-propyl ether is prepared from bromobenzene and sodium w-propoxide (C) Phenyl n-propyl ether can be prepared by either of the two methods (D) Both (A) and (B) are not the correct methods for the synthesis of phenyl ra-propyl ether
ANS: A
Q.66 Read the following statements about SN^ reactions: [P] : They proceed with complete inversion (Walden inversion). [Q] : They proceed with racemization
(A) Q and R are used to increase water solubility while P and S are used to decrease it (B) P, Q and R are used to increase water solubility while S is used to decrease it (C) Q, S and R are used to increase water solubility while P is used to decrease it (D) Q and S are used to increase water solubility while P and R are used to decrease it
ANS: B
Q.71. Study the following statements on prevention of crystalluria. By the given approaches crystalluria can be prevented-
[P] : By co-administration of sulfadiazine, sulfamerazine and sulfamethazine [Q] : By increasing the pH of urine [R] : By co-administration of sulphanilamide, sulphamethoxazole and folic acid [S] : By administration of co-trimoxazole Choose the correct combination of statements. (A) P and Q are correct (B) R and S are correct (C) P and R are correct (D) Q and R are correct
ANS: Only Q is correct, P, R, S are incorrect (we asked in our question about side effect of sulphonamide)
Q.72 Progesterone is obtained from diosgenin through the following sequence of chemical reactions: [P] : Acetylation, Cr03 (oxidation), Acetolysis, H2/Pd, Hydrolysis and Oppenauer oxidation [Q] : Oppenauer oxidation, Acetylation, Cr03 (oxidation), Acetolysis, H2/Pd and Hydrolysis [R] : Cr03 (oxidation), Acetolysis, Acetylation, Oppenauer oxidation, Hydrolysis and H2/Pd [S] : Acetylation, H2/Pd, Hydrolysis, Cr03 (oxidation), Oppenauer oxidation and Acetolysis Choose the correct sequence of reactions. (A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S
ANS: A
Q. 73 Following statements are given for local anaesthetic drug lidocaine: [P] : It contains a xylidine moiety -gpatindia.com. [Q] : It can be used as antiarrhythmic agent on oral administration.
[R] : When administered along with adrenaline its toxicity is reduced and its effect is prolonged. [S] : Chemically it is 2-diethylamino-2',6'-dimethylphenyl acetamide Choose the correct combination of statements. (A) P, Q and S (B) P, Q and R (C) P, R and S (D) Q, R and S
ANS: C (MINOR 6 )
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Q. 74 One of the following ring systems can be used as the bioisosteric replacement for benzene ring in drug design: IP]: Thiophene [Q]: Cyclohexa-l,3-diene [R]: Pyrrolidine [S} : Imidazoline Identify the correct answer. (A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S
ANS: A
Q.75 Some of the following statements describe the properties of Dropping Mercury Electrode (DME) correctly: [P] Constant renewal of electrode surface eliminates poisoning effects. [Q] Mercury makes many metal ions easily reducible. [R] Mercury has large hydrogen over-voltage. [S] The electrode can get oxidised with ease. Identify the correct combination. (A) All statements P, Q, R and S are correct (B) Statements P. Q and R only are correct (C) Statements P, R and S only are correct (D) Statements P, Q and S only are correct
ANS: B
HINT:
Q.77 For the management of which disease the given drug tacrine is used? Identify.
N
NH 2
(A) Glaucoma (B) Antidote for acticholinesterase poisoning (C) As an insecticide (D) Alzheimers disease
ANS: D ( SEMI MAJOR 1)
Q.78 Low dose aspirin acts as anti-platelet aggregating agent by which one of the following mechanisms? Find the correct answer. (A) It acts as a suicide substrate for COX-1 enzyme present in platelets (B) It acts as a transition state analog for COX-2 enzyme present in the platelets (C) It acts as a reversible inhibitor of lipoxigenase present in the platelets (D) It acts as an affinity label of oxidoreductases present in the platelets
ANS: A
Q.79 Some statements are given for clavulanic acid, sulbactam and tazobactam: [P] : All three lack the 6-acylamino side chain [Q]: All are potent inhibitors of the enzyme P-lactamase [R] : All are prodrugs of penicillin [S] : All have weak antibacterial activity Choose the correct combination of statements. (A) P, Q and R are true while S is false
(B) Q, R and S are true while P is false (C) P, R and S are true while Q is false (D) P, Q and S are true while R is false
ANS: D
Q.80 Electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions in indole give one of the following products preferably. Identify that. (A) 3-Substituted indole (B) 2-Substituted indole (C) 5-Substituted indole (D) 6-Substituted indole
ANS: A
Q.81 Which one of the following species is an intermediate in the reaction shown below? 2CH 3 CH 2 CHO CH 3 CH 2 CH(OH).CH(CH 3 ).CHO NaOH
(A)
CH 2 CH 2 CHO
(B)
CH2CH2CHO
(C)
CH 3 CHCHO
(D)
CH 3 CHCHO
ANS: D ( MINOR TEST- 16)
Q.82 Which detector is used in gas chromatography for halogen containing compounds specifically? (A) Katharometer (B) Electron capture detector (C) Flame ionization detector (D) Thermal conductivity detector
ANS: B
Q.83 Precessional frequency of a nucleus depends on the followings: [P] : Quantum of externally applied magnetic field [Q] : Quantum of electron density present around the nucleus [R] : Frequency of applied electromagnetic radiations [S] : Electronegativity of the element Choose the correct combination of statements. (A) P & Q are true (B) P & R are true (C) Q & R are true (D) P & S are true
ANS: A
