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Q.l A glycoalkaloid, [P] Contains sulphur in addition to nitrogen in its molecule [Q] is glycosidic in nature. [R] Can be hydrolysed to an alkaloid. [S] Always contains endocyclic nitrogen in its molecule. Choose the correct option. (A) P & R (B) Q & S (C) Q & R
Ans. B
Q.2 Which of the following statements are true for ginseng root? [PI It is among the most traded plant material of Brazil. [Q] It is obtained from Panax ginseng and Panax quinquefolium. [R] It is obtained from young plants of six months to one year age. [S] It contains derivatives of protopanaxadiol. (A) P & Q (B) R & S (C) Q & R (D)
Ans. D (MINOR TEST)
Q.3 Which of the following drugs is a triterpenoid containing root?
(A) Valerian (B) Brahmi (C) Satavari (D) Adusa
Ans. A (MINOR TEST)
Q.4 Which of the following alkaloids is derived from tyrosine?
(A) Quinine t (B) Morphine (C) Atropine (D) Ephedrine
Ans. B (MINOR TEST)
Q.5 The following options carry the name of the plant, part used and its family. Find a WRONG combination.
(A) Aegle marmelos, fruit & Rutaceae (B) Conium maculatum, fruit & Umbelliferae (C) Glycyrrhiza glabra, root and stolon & Leguminosae (D) Strophanthus gratus, seed & Scrophulariaceae
Ans. D (MINOR TEST-50% SIMILAR –B & A OPTION ARE DIFFERENT FROM OUR QUESTION)
Q.6 Anomocytic stomata, trichomes with collapsed cell and absence of calcium oxalate crystals are some of the microscopic features of which plant?
(A) Digitalis (B) Hyoscyamus (C) Mentha (D) Senna
ANS. A (MAJOR PAPER)
Q.7 Each of the following options lists the name of the drug, its class, pharmacological action and plant source. Choose an option showing a WRONG combination. (A) Asafoetida, oleo-gum-resin, anti-flatulence, Ferula foetida (B) Benzoin, balsam, antiseptic, Styrax benzoin (C) Myrrh, gum-resin, antiseptic, Commiphora wightii (D) Papaine, enzyme, proteolytic, Carica papaya ANS.C
Q.8 Quinoline alkaloids are biosynthesized via which one of the following pathways?
(A) Shikimic acid - tyrosine (B) Shikimic acid - tryptophan (C) Shikimic acid - cathinone (D) Shikimic acid - phenylalanine
A N S. B ( M I N O R T E S T )
Q.9 Which of the following ergot alkaloids is water soluble and shows blue fluorescence?
(A) Ergosine (B) Ergotamine (C) Ergocristme (D) Ergometrine
A N S. D ( M I N O R T E S T - A S I N T H A T Q. W E A S K E S D A B O U T W A T E R S O L U B L E E R G O T
A L K L O I D )
Q.10 Khellin is an active constituent of which one of the following plants?
(A) Prunus serona (B) Tribulus terrestis (C) Ammi visnaga (D) Vanilla plamfolia
A N S. C ( M I N O R T E S T )
(D) P & Q
Q & S
[PHARMACOPHORE SOLUTIONS-JAIPUR]
Q.l1 Goldbeater's skin test is used to detect the presence of which one of the following classes of compounds?
(A) Tannins (B) Steroids (C) Glycerides (D) Resins A N S. A
Q.12 Which one of the following compounds is useful for the stimulation of cell division and release of lateral bud dormancy? (A) Zeatin (B) 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (C) Indoleacetic acid (D) Picloram A N S. A ( M I N O R + M A J O R T E S A A L S O )
Q.13 Phenylethylisoquinoline is the precursor of which of the following alkaloids?
(A) Colchicine (B) Papaverine (C) Emetine (D) Cephaline
A N S. A ( M I N O R T E S T )
Q.14 A powdered drug has the following microscopic characters:
Anther cells, arenchyma, pollen grains, phloem fibers, volatile oil cells and stone cells. The powder is obtained from which of the followings? (A) Clove bud powder (B) Clove bud powder with stalk (C) Mother Clove (D) None of the above A N S. B
Q.15 Arrange the following fatty acids in decreasing order of their unsaturation (highest to lowest):
[P] Stearic [Q] Oleic acid |R] Lmolenic acid |S] Linoleic acid (A) P > Q > R > S (B) S > R > P > Q (C) R > S > Q > P (D) Q > P > R > S A N S. C
Q.16 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion (a): Tannins are polyphenolic substances occurring in plant cell sap. Hydrolysable and condensed tannins are differentiated by match stick test. Reason (r) : The condensed tannins are resistant to acid hydrolysis therefore stain the lignin present in match stick. ( A ) Both (a) and (r) are true, and (r) is a correct reason for (a) (B) Both (a) and (r) are true, but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a) (C) (a) is true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a) (D) Both (a) and (r) are false
ANS. B (AS U KNOW A &R TYPE QUE. ARE VERY IMP.PART OF OUR TEST SERIES. IN EVERY TEST U GET AROUND 3-5 QUE)
Q.17 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion (a): Castor oil is soluble in alcohol and is used as purgative. Reason (r) : The oil contains ricinoleic acid having a hydroxyl group at C-12 position which is responsible for its solubility in alcohol and its purgative action. (A) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a) (B) (a) is true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a) (C) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a) (D) Both (a) and (r) are false
ANS.C (SEMI MAJOR TEST)
Q.18 In acetate mevalonate pathway geranyl pyrophosphate leads to formation of monoterpenes, the major constituents of volatile oils. [P] Geranyl pyrophosphate contains two isoprene units [Q] Monoterpenes have 15 carbon atoms [R] The two isoprene units condense in head to tail fashion to give Monoterpenes [S] Isoprene unit has molecular formula of C 5 H (^) s.
Which one of the given statements is correct? (A) P is true. Q is false, R is true, S is false (B) P is false. Q is true, R is true, S is false (C) P is true. Q is true, R is false, S is true (D) P is true. Q is false, R is true, S is true ANS.D
[PHARMACOPHORE SOLUTIONS-JAIPUR]
Q.28 Which of the following beta blockers has been shown clinically to reduce mortality in patients of symptomatic heart failure? (A) Atenolol (B) Carvedilol (C) Propranolol (d) Esmolol
ANS. B
Q.29 All of the given four drugs cause vasodilatation. Choose the correct statement about them.
[P] Bradykimn [Q] Minoxidil [R] Acetylcholine [S] Hydralazine (A) P & Q cause release of nitric oxide (B) Q & R do not cause release of nitric oxide (C) R & S cause release of nitric oxide (D) P & S do not cause release of nitric oxide ANS. A
Q.30 Rhabdomyolysis is the side effect associated with which of the following classes of drugs?
(A) ACE inhibitors (B) Statins (C) Calcium channel blockers (D) Sodium channel blockers ANS. B (MINOR TEST)
Q.31 Blood level monitoring of HbAlc is important in which of the given diseased states?
(A) Hypercholesterolemia (B) Diabetes mellitus (C) Myocardial infarction (D) Congestive heart failure ANS. B
Q.32 Most of the emergency contraceptives have which one of the following active ingredients?
(A) Estradiol (B) Norethindron (C) Misoprostol (D) Levonorgesterel
A n s. D ( M A J O R T E S T - 1 )
Q.33 Which of the following antibiotics produces concentration dependent bactericidal action and also possesses post-antibiotic effect? (A) Ceftazidime (B) Azithromycin l-(C) Amikacin (D) Piperacillin
ANS. C (MAJOR TEST -1)
Q.34 Antiretroviral Raltegravir is unique, because of which of its following actions 9
(A) Integrase inhibition (B) CCR5 Co-receptor antagonism (C) Fusion inhibition (D) Reverse transcriptase inhibition
ANS. A (MINOR TEST- AS IN THAT Q. WE ASKED-WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS FUSION INHIBITOR)
Q. 35 What is chemotaxis?
(A) Toxicity of chemicals (B) Taxonomy of chemicals (C) Inhibition of Inflammation (D) Movement of leucocytes in inflammation
ANS. D (MINOR TEST , AS WELL AS –GATE-2006 )
Q.36 Which one of the followings is NOT an example of G-protein coupled receptor?
(A) Muscarinic cholinergic receptor (B) Alpha adrenoceptor (C) Nicotinic cholinergic receptor (D) Beta adrenoceptor
ANS. C
Q.37 Which of the followings used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is NOT a biologic response modifier?
(A) Anakinra (B) Leflunomide (C) Etanercept V"(6) Infliximab
ANS. B (MINOR TEST- AS IN THAT Q. WE ASKED- ABOUT TNF)
Q.38 Which of the following statements is FALSE for artemisinin?
(A) It is a sesquiterpene lactone endoperoxide (B) It is a drug of choice in prophylaxis of malaria (C) It does not cure relapsing malaria (D) It is useful in treatment of cerebral falciparum malaria ANS. B (MINOR TEST)
Q.39 Which of the followings is a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme reverse transcriptase m HIV?
(A) Lamivudine (B) Nevirapine (C) Abacavir (D) Tenofovir
ANS. B
Q.40 Which of the followings is the most effective monotherapy for raising HDL cholesterol?
(A) Statins (B) Niacin (C) Ezetimibe (D) to-3-Fatty acids ANS. B
Q.41 Which of the following parameters from plasma concentration time profile study gives indication of the rate of drug absorption? (A) Cmax (B) Tmax (C) AUC (D) tl /
Ans. B (MAJOR TEST)
Q.42 Which of the following pairs has high binding affinity for 5α-reductase?
(A) Letrozole and androstenedione (B) Finasteride and testolactone (C) Finasteride and 5-DHT (D) Finasteride and testosterone
ANS. C (MINOR TEST- AS WE ASKED-5α-reductase INHIBITOR IS?)
Q.43 Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants acts directly on the contractile mechanism of the muscle fibers? (A) Pancuronium (B) Baclofen (C) Dantrolene (D) Chlorzoxazone
ANS. C (MINOR TEST)
Q.44 Which is the molecular target for the vinca alkaloids as anticancer agents? (A) Tyrosine kinase (B) DNA (C) Ribosomes (D) Tubulin
ANS. D (MINOR TEST)
Q.45 Choose the correct pair of the neurodegenerative disorders from those given below. (A) Parkinson's disease and Alzheimer's disease (B) Schizophrenia and Mania (C) Alzheimer's disease and Schizophrenia (D) Parkinson's disease and Autism
ANS .A
Q.46 A 64 year old woman with a history of Type II diabetes is diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the followings would be a POOR choice in controlling her diabetes?
(A) Metformin (B ) Pioghtazone (C) Glipizide (D) Exenatide
ANS. B (MINOR TEST)
Q.47 Mifepristone and gemeprost combination is used for medical termination of pregnancy. The action is caused due to which of the following mechanisms?
(A) Mifepristone is an antiestrogen while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor agonist. (B) Mifepristone is an antiprogestin while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor agonist. (C) Mifepristone is an antiandrogen while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor agonist. (D) Mifepristone is an antiprogestin while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor antagonist
ANS. B
Q. 48. Which one of the followings is a beta lactamase inhibitor?
(A) Penicillanic acid (B) Embonic acid (C) Cephalosporanic acid (C) Clavulanic acid A n s. D ( S E M I M A J O R )
Q.60 Non-linear pharmacokinetics can be expected due to [P] Enzyme induction [Q] Active secretion Choose the correct answer. (A) Both P and Q are true (B) P is true, Q is false (C) Q is true. P is false (D) Both P and Q are false
Ans. A
Q.61 Which wavelength of the UV light provides maximum germicidal action? (A) 253.7 nm (B) 275.5 nm (C) 283.5 nm (D) 240.0 nm
ANS.A
Q.62 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? (A) Chick Martin test uses organic matter in media (B) The organism in Rideal-Walker test is S. typhi (C) Rideal-Walker test uses organic matter in media (D) The organism in Chick Martin test is S. typhi
Ans. C (MINOR TEST- AS WE ASKED ABOUT RIDEAL WALKER TEST)
Q.63 Which of the following forces contribute to stability of charge-transfer complexes? (A) Resonance forces (B) Resonance and London dispersion forces (C) Dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces (D) Resonance forces and dipole-dipole interactions
ANS.D
Q.64 Which of the following isotherms are produced when the heat of condensation of successive layers is more than the heat of adsorption of first layer? (A) Type III and IV (B) Type II and V (C) Type I and III (D) Type III and V
ANS.D
Q.65 Which of the followings act as a non-ionic emulsifying agent? (A) Triethanolamine oleate (B) Polyoxyethylene sorbitan monooleate (C) N-Cetyl-N-ethylmorpholinium ethosulfate (D) Dioctyl sulphosuccinate
ANS.B (MINOR TEST)
Q.66 The minimal effective flow rate of air in laminar flow hood should be not less than how many cubic feet per minute? (A) 10 .(B) 50 (C) 100 (D) 1000
ANS.C (MINOR TEST)
Q.67 Which of the following Schedules include shelf life of drugs? (A) Schedule F (B) Schedule M (C) Schedule G (D) Schedule P
ANS.D (MAJOR TEST+ MINOR TEST)
Q.68 Which of the following pumps is used in handling of corrosive liquids? (A) Turbine pump (B) Volute pump (C) Air binding pump (D) Peristaltic pump
ANS.D
Q.69 By addition of which of the followings the shells of soft gelatin capsules may be made elastic?
(A) Polyethylene glycol (B) Sorbitol (C) Propylene glycol (D) Dibutyl phthalate
ANS.B and C
[PHARMACOPHORE SOLUTIONS-JAIPUR]
Q.70 Convert 90% v/v alcohol to Proof strength. Choose the correct answer. (A) 57.77° under proof (B) 57.77° over proof (C) 47.41° over proof (D) 47.41° under proof
ANS.B (MAJOR-PPAPER-2)
Q.71 Department of Transport Test (DOT) is performed for which of the followings? (A) Strip packing (B) Aerosols (C) Injection packing (D) Glass containers
ANS.B
Q.72 What is the Heat of vaporization of water at 100°C? (A) 2790 cal/mole (B) 7290 cal / mole (C) 7920 cal/mole (D) 9720 cal / mole
ANS.D
Q.73 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion [a]: For a pharmaceutical powder true density is greater than the granule density. Reason [r] : Mercury displacement used for determining granule density, allows penetration of liquid into internal pores of the particles. (A) [a] is true but [r] is false (B) Both [a] and [r] are false (C) Both la] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a] (D) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correct reason for [a]
ANS.A
Q.74 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following statements: [P] Rheopexy is the phenomenon when a sol forms gel more readily when sheared gently. IQ] In a rheopectic system, sol is the equilibrium form. [R] Rheopexy is a phenomenon when a sol forms gel when the material is kept at rest. (A) [R] is true but [P] and [Q] are false (B) [P] is true but [Q] and [Rl are false (C) [P], [Q] and [R], all are false (D) [P], [Q] and [R], all are true
ANS.B
Q.75 Define Plasmapheresis? Choose the correct answer. (A) The process of collecting plasma and returning the red blood cells concentrate to the donor (B) The process of collecting red blood cells concentrate and returning the plasma to the donor (C) The process of separating white blood cells from blood (D) The process of generating artificial blood plasma expanders
ANS.A (MINOR TEST)
Q.76 Molecules in the smectic liquid crystals are characterized by which one of the followings? (A) Mobility in three directions and rotation in one axis (B) Mobility in two directions and rotation in one axis (C) Mobility in two directions and no rotation (D) Mobility in three directions and no rotation
ANS.B
Q.77 Choose the correct sequence of Moisture Vapor Transmission Rate in packaging materials?
(A) Paper > Aluminium foil > PVC > PVdC (B) Aluminium foil > PVC > PVdC > Paper (C) Aluminium foil > PVdC > PVC > Paper (D) Paper > PVC > PVdC > Aluminium foil
ANS.D
Q.78 How many mL of 50% (w/v) dextrose solution and how many mL of 5% (w/v) dextrose solution are required to prepare 4500 mL of a 10% (w/v) solution?
(A) 500 mL of 50% and 4000 mL of 5% (B) 1000 mL of 50% and 3500 mL of 5% (C) 4000 mL of 50% and 500 mL of 5% (D) 1500 mL of 50% and 3000 mL of 5%
ANS. A (SIMILAR TO MINOR & MAJOR NUMERICAL VALUE ARE CHANGE)
Q.89 If the distillation graph using McCabe Thiele method is parallel to X-axis, then the feed is which one of the followings? (A) Saturated liquid (B) Saturated vapor (C) Superheated liquid (D) Superheated vapor
ANS.A
Q.90 What for the baffles are provided in a shell and tube heat exchanger?
(A) To increase turbulence (B) To decrease turbulence (C) To prevent corrosion (D) To increase shell side passes
ANS.A
Q. 91 S O S means which one of the followings?
(A) Take occasionally (B) Take immediately (C) Take when necessary (D) Take as directed ANS.C (MINOR TEST)
Q.92 Which statement is FALSE for Association Colloids?
(A) They are also called amphiphiles (B) They contain aggregated molecules (C) They show partial solvation (D) They are also called micelles
ANS.C
Q.93 Which of the followings is NOT a reciprocating pump?
(A) Plunger pump (B) Diaphragm pump (C) Gear pump (D) Piston pump
ANS.C
Q.94 Which is NOT applicable to protein binding?
(A) Klotz reciprocal plot (B) Sandberg modified equation (C) Blanchard equation (D) Detli plot
ANS.D
Q.95 Statement [P] : Soft gelatin capsules contain 12-15 % moisture.
Statement [Q] : Hard gelatin capsule shells contain 6-10 % moisture. Choose the correct statement? (A) Both of the above statements P & Q are true (B) Both of the above statements P & Q are false (C) Statement P is true and Q is false (D) Statement P is false and Q is true
ANS.B (MINOR TEST – AS WE ASKED ABOUT MOISTURE CONTENT OF SOFT GELATIN CAPSULE)
Q.96 According to USP, the speed regulating device of the dissolution apparatus should be capable of maintaining the speed within limits of what % of the selected speed? (A) 1 % (B) 2 % (C) 4 % (D) 5 %
ANS. C (+/- 4%)
Q.97 A drug whose solubility is 1 g/L in water, when given orally at a dose of 500 mg is absorbed up to 95% of the administered dose.
The drug belongs to which class according to the BCS classification? (A) Class I (B) Class II (C) Class III (D) Class IV
ANS.A
Q.98 Which statement is NOT true for steam distillation?
(A) It is also called differential distillation (B) It can be used for separation of immiscible liquids (C) It can be applied for volatile substances (D) It can be used for separation of miscible liquids
ANS.D
Q.99 The area of clear opening of any two successive sieves according to Tyler standard is in the ratio of, (A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 6 (C) 1 : √2 (D) 1 : √
ANS.C
Q.100 What is Primogel? (A) Substituted HPMC for direct compression (B) Modified microcrystalline cellulose for direct compression (C) Hydro gelling polymer for gel formation (D) Modified starch for disintegration ANS.D
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Q.101 A tooth paste contains stannous fluoride and calcium pyrophosphate along with other formulation constituents. Choose the correct statement out of the followings? (A) Stannous fluoride is an anticaries agent while calcium pyrophosphate is a dentifrice (B) Stannous fluoride is a dentifrice while calcium pyrophosphate is a desensitizing agent (C) Stannous fluoride is a desensitizing agent while calcium pyrophosphate is an anticaries agent (D) Both are dentifrices while calcium pyrophosphate is additionally a desensitizing agent
ANS.A Q.102 Hydrogen peroxide solution (20 volumes) is used topically as a mild antiseptic. It is mainly used for cleaning of wounds which could be due to some of the following actions of hydrogen peroxide. [P] Astringent action [Q] Nascent hydrogen releasing action [R] Oxidizing action [S] Mechanical cleansing action Choose the correct statements for the use of hydrogen peroxide as cleaning agent for wounds? ( A ) P & R (B) P & Q (C) R & Q (D) R & S
ANS.C Magnesium trisilicate is considered to be a better antacid than aluminium hydroxide due to its following additional properties: [P] It has a fixed chemical composition [Q] It forms colloidal silicone dioxide [R] Magnesium ions overcome constipation [S] Magnesium ions cause higher inhibition of pepsin than aluminium ions Choose the correct combination of statements? (A) Q & S (B) R & S (C) P & Q (D) Q & R
ANS.D (MINOR TEST) Boric acid is a weak acid (pKa 9.19) which cannot be titrated with a standard solution of sodium hydroxide using phenolphthalein as indicator. This titration becomes possible on addition of glycerol due to one of the following reactions. Choose the correct reaction? (A) Boric acid becomes boronic acid on reaction with glycerol (B) Boric acid gives a monoprotic tetravalent boron ester with glycerol (C) Boric acid gives a tribasic acid on reaction with glycerol (D) Two boric acid molecules combine to give an anhydride in presence of glycerol
ANS.C
Q.
Q.
Q.113 In nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reactions arrange the following leaving groups in decreasing order of their leaving capacity? [P] Brosyl[Q] Hydroxyl [R] Chloro [S] Mesyl
(A) S > R > P > Q (B) P > S > R > Q (C) R > Q > S > P (D) R > S > Q > P
ANS.B
Q.114 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [ a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion (a) : Quaternary ammonium phase transfer catalysts can enhance the rate of nucleophilic aliphatic substitutionreactions in biphasic systems with water soluble nucleophiles. Reason (r) : Quaternary ammonium compounds are highly polar, positively charged water soluble compounds.
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a) (B) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a) (C) (a) is true (r) is false (D) Both (a) and (r) are false
ANS. B
Q.115 Which one of the given compounds can be used as primary standard for standardization of perchloric acid solution in non-aqueous titrations?
(A) Potassium hydrogen phthalate (B) Sodium bicarbonate (C) Potassium dihydrogen phosphate (D) Sodium methoxide
ANS.A (MINOR TEST)
Q.116 In context of complexometry (complexometric titrations), the two terms labile and inert complexes, are used frequently. Choose the correct statement about them? (A) Labile complexes are formed instantly while inert complexes take hours or days in their formation (B) Labile complexes take much longer time in formation than inert complexes (C) Labile complexes get hydrolyzed in water immediately while inert complexes are stable in water (D) Labile complexes get decomposed on mild heating in aqueous solutions while inert complexes do not decompose
ANS.C
Q.117 Indicators used in complexometric titrations are chelating agents. Choose the correct statement about them? (A) Indicator-metal ion complex should have higher stability than EDTA-Metal ion complex (B) Indicator-metal ion complex should have lower stability than EDTA-Metal ion complex (C) Indicator-metal ion complex should have equal stability as EDTA-Metal ion complex (D) Stability of the indicator-metal ion complex is not an important criterion in complexometric titrations
ANS.B
Q.118 In colorimetric estimation of a drug, the following sequence of reactions is carried out: treatment of the aqueous solution of the drug with sodium nitrite solution in acidic medium followed by addition of sulphamic acid and then treatment with N-(l-naphthyl) ethylene- diamine in slightly basic medium to obtain a pink colour; which is measured at a fixed wavelength to correlate the quantity of the drug with the optical density. Identify the drug under estimation? (A) Streptomycin sulphate (B) Thiamine hydrochloride (C) Dexamethasone (D) Sulphamethoxazole
ANS.D
Q.119 Name the compound used for standardization of Karl-Fisher reagent in aquametry?
(A) Sodium tartrate dihydrate (B) Copper sulphate pentahydrate (C) Sodium iodide (D) Sodium thiosulphate
ANS.A (SEMI MAJOR PAPER 2)
Q.120 In the electrochemical series, the standard reduction potentials of copper and zinc are + 0. V and - 0.763 V, respectively. If the half cells of both of these metals are connected externally to each other through an external circuit and a salt bridge, which one of the following processes will take place? (A) Zinc metal electrode will start dissolving in solution while copper ions will start depositing on the copper electrode. (B) Copper metal electrode will start dissolving in solution while zinc ions will start depositing on the zinc electrode (C) Both of the metal electrodes will start dissolving in the solution (D) Both types of ions will start depositing on their respective electrodes
ANS.A
Q.121 In polarography. DME has a number of advantages. One of the advantages is that mercury has large hydrogen over potential. It means which one of the followings? (A) Hydrogen ions get easily reduced on the DME (B) Hydrogen gas gets easily reduced on the DME (C) Hydrogen ions require high potential to be reduced at DME (D) Water is difficult to get oxidized at DME
ANS.A
Q.122 Following are the desirable properties of the liquid phase used in GLC EXCEPT for one of the followings. Identify that. (A) It should be inert to the analytes (B) It should have high viscosity at operating temperature (C) It should have low vapour pressure at the operating temperature (D) It should have a high resolving power
ANS.B (MINOR TEST)
Q.123 In HPLC analysis what type of column would you prefer? (A) A column with high HETP and high number of plates (B) A column with low HETP and low number of plates (C) A column with high HETP and low number of plates (D) A column with low HETP and high number of plates
ANS.D
Q.124 To synthesize sulphonyl urea antidiabetic, which of the following reactions can be used? (A) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonyl chloride with a desired urea derivative under basic conditions (B) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonamide with a desired isocyanate derivative (C) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonic acid with a desired isocyanate derivative (D) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphoxide with a desired urea derivative
ANS.B (MINOR TEST) Q.125 In an optically active organic compound a chiral carbon has the following attached groups:
Using 'Sequence Rules' choose the correct order of priority of the groups?
(A) Q > P > S > R (B) P > Q > R > S ( C ) Q > P > R > S ( D ) P > Q > S > R
ANS.A
[S] ─ C≡C [R] -CH = CH 2
Q.134 The catalytic triad in acetyl cholinesterase is composed of which of the following amino acid residues?
(A) Serine, Histidine and Glutamate (B) Serine, Arginine and Glutamate (C) Threonine, Histidine and Aspartate (D) Threonine, Arginine and Glutamate
ANS.A
Q.135 Fajan's method of titrimetric analysis involves detection of the end point on the basis of which one the followings? (A) Colour change (B) Appearance of a precipitate (C) Neutralization reaction (D) Adsorption phenomenon
ANS.B
Q.136 Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Aliphatic protons have chemical shifts > 7 ppm (B) Spin quantum number of proton is 1 (C) Chemical shift describes electronic environment of a proton (D) Vicinal coupling constant is always higher than geminal coupling constant ANS.C
Q.137 'In FT-IR instruments Michaelson interferometer is used in place of grating. The function of the interferometer is to act as a modulator’. What do you understand by this statement? (A) The function of the interferometer is to act as a monochromator (B) The function of the interferometer is to convert high frequency radiations into low ones (C) The function of the interferometer is to convert low frequency radiations into high ones (D) The function of the interferometer is to convert frequency domain spectra into time domain spectra ANS.A
Q.138 Polyamine polystyrene resins belong to which category of ion-exchange resins?
(A) Strongly Acidic Cation Exchange Resins (B) Strongly Basic Anion Exchange Resins (C) Weakly Acidic Cation Exchange Resins (D) Weakly Basic Anion Exchange Resins ANS.D
Q.139 Discrepancies in potential measurements involving factors like 'alkaline error' and 'asymmetry potential' are associated with which of the following electrodes 9 (A) Hydrogen electrode (B) Quinhydrone electrode (C) Saturated calomel electrode (D) Glass Electrode
ANS.A
Q.140 Which amongst the following auxochromes produces a shift towards higher energy wave length? (A) -CH 3 (B) -NHCH 3 (C) -CI (D) -C=
ANS. B (MINOR TEST)
Q.141 What is the wave number equivalent of 400 nm wavelength?
(A) 0.0025 cm -1^ (B) 0.25 cm-1^ (C) 2500 cm -1^ (D) 25000 cm - ANS.D
Q.142 Chloroform is stored in dark colored bottles because it is oxidized in presence of light and air to
a toxic compound. Identify that.
(A) CH 2 C1 2 (B) COCl 2 (C) CO (D) CC1 4
ANS.B
Q.143 All of the given compounds show n —> a* transition. Identify which one will have the highest λ max? (A) Methanol (B) Methylamine (C) Methyl iodide (D) Methyl bromide
ANS.D (MINOR TEST)
Q.144 Given are the four statements about NMR:
[P] 13 CMR is a less sensitive technique than PMR
[Q] Both 13 C and :H have I=1/ [R] Precessional frequency of the nucleus is directly proportional to the applied magnetic field [S] Deuterium exchange studies can be performed to ascertain protons attached to heteroatoms. Choose the correct combination of statements. (A) P, Q & R are true while S is false (B) R, S & Q are true while P is false (C) S, P & Q are true while R is false (D) All are true
ANS.D (MINOR + SEMI MAJOR TEST -50% QUESTION SIMMILAR)
Q.145 Which of the following statements is WRONG?
(A) The energy -^ required for removing an electron from a molecule varies in the given order : lone pair < conjugated n < non conjugated n < a (B) Isotopic ratio is particularly useful for the detection and estimation of number of S, CI and Br atoms in the compound in MS (C) Neutral fragments and molecules do not get detected in the detector in MS (D) The most intense peak in the MS is called the molecular ion peak
ANS.D
Q.146 Which one is an example of a bulk property detector used in HPLC?
(A) Fluorescence detector (B) Photo diode array detector (C) Refractive index detector (D) UV detector
ANS. C (MINOR TEST)
Q.147 The protons ortho to the nitro group in p-nitrotoluene are examples of which one of the Following types 9 (A) Chemically equivalent but magnetically non-equivalent protons (B) Chemically and magnetically equivalent protons (C) Chemically and magnetically nonequivalent protons (D) Chemically nonequivalent but magnetically equivalent protons
ANS.A
Q.148 A 250 μg/ml solution of a drug gave an absorbance of 0.500 at 250 nm at a path length of 10 mm. What is the specific absorbance of the drug at 250 nm?
(A) 0.002 cm -1^ gm -1^ litre ( B ) 0.002 cm -1^ gm -1^ dl (C) 20 cm -1^ gm -1^ litre ( D ) 20 cm -1^ gm -1^ dl Ans. D
Q.149 The peak at m/z 9 1 in the mass spectrum for alkyl benzenes is due to which one of the followings? ( A ) Alpha fission ( B ) Retro Diels-Alder rearrangement (C) Mc-Laffartey rearrangement ( D ) Tropylium ion formation
ANS. D (MINOR TEST)
Q.150 Following statements are given for a chemical reaction: Change in Gibb's free energy of the reaction has a negative value. Change in Enthalpy of the reaction has a negative value Change in Entropy of the reaction has a positive value Based on the above statements choose the correct answer. (A) The reaction is spontaneous. ( B ) The reaction is non-spontaneous. ( C ) The reaction could either be spontaneous or non-spontaneous. (D) The reaction can never be spontaneous.
ANS.A (MINOR TEST)
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