Docsity
Docsity

Prepare for your exams
Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity


Earn points to download
Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan


Guidelines and tips
Guidelines and tips

FMF (BOARD!!!!)| 717 QUESTIONS| 42 QUESTIONS| WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS, Exams of Nursing

FMF (BOARD!!!!)| 717 QUESTIONS| 42 QUESTIONS| WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 08/19/2024

Prof_Edward
Prof_Edward 🇬🇧

1

(1)

58 documents

1 / 42

Toggle sidebar

This page cannot be seen from the preview

Don't miss anything!

bg1
FMF (BOARD!!!!)| 717 QUESTIONS| 42 QUESTIONS|
WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
What is ORM? correct answer: Decision making tool used by people at all levels to increase
operational effectiveness and minimizes risks
Explain Identify hazards correct answer: Listing of hazards
Explain assess hazards correct answer: determine degree of risk
Explain make risk decisions correct answer: develop risk control options
Explain Implement controls correct answer: eliminate hazards or reduce risk.
Explain supervise correct answer: follow up evaluations of the controls
What is the five step process of ORM? correct answer: Identify hazards,
assess hazards,
make risk decisions,
implement controls,
and supervise.
First principle of ORM? correct answer: Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost.
2nd principle of ORM? correct answer: Accept no unnecessary risk, take only risks which are
necessary to accomplish the mission.
3rd principle of ORM? correct answer: Anticipate and manage risk by planning .
4th principle of ORM? correct answer: Make risk decisions at the right level.
Explain head protection correct answer: Safety helmets. Head-hazardous areas.
Explain hearing protection correct answer: noise levels greater than 84 decibels 140 decibel
peak.
double protection above 104 decibels.
Explain foot protection correct answer: foot hazardous operations.
Explain Eye protection correct answer: eye hazardous operations.
What is a hazardous material? correct answer: material that may pose a hazard to human health
or environment
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c
pf1d
pf1e
pf1f
pf20
pf21
pf22
pf23
pf24
pf25
pf26
pf27
pf28
pf29
pf2a

Partial preview of the text

Download FMF (BOARD!!!!)| 717 QUESTIONS| 42 QUESTIONS| WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

FMF (BOARD!!!!)| 717 QUESTIONS| 42 QUESTIONS|

WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS

What is ORM? correct answer: Decision making tool used by people at all levels to increase operational effectiveness and minimizes risks Explain Identify hazards correct answer: Listing of hazards Explain assess hazards correct answer: determine degree of risk Explain make risk decisions correct answer: develop risk control options Explain Implement controls correct answer: eliminate hazards or reduce risk. Explain supervise correct answer: follow up evaluations of the controls What is the five step process of ORM? correct answer: Identify hazards, assess hazards, make risk decisions, implement controls, and supervise. First principle of ORM? correct answer: Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost. 2nd principle of ORM? correct answer: Accept no unnecessary risk, take only risks which are necessary to accomplish the mission. 3rd principle of ORM? correct answer: Anticipate and manage risk by planning. 4th principle of ORM? correct answer: Make risk decisions at the right level. Explain head protection correct answer: Safety helmets. Head-hazardous areas. Explain hearing protection correct answer: noise levels greater than 84 decibels 140 decibel peak. double protection above 104 decibels. Explain foot protection correct answer: foot hazardous operations. Explain Eye protection correct answer: eye hazardous operations. What is a hazardous material? correct answer: material that may pose a hazard to human health or environment

What is a hazardous waste? correct answer: discarded material designated as a hazardous by the EPA or state authority What is MSDS? correct answer: containing information about materials such as the composition, chemical, and physical characteristics; safety hazards; and safe use. What is a hazard? correct answer: potential to cause injury or death What is a risk? correct answer: possible loss in terms of severity and probability What is risk assessment? correct answer: process of detecting hazards and risks. 1775? correct answer: - November 10th Marine corps created in Philadelphia, PA at tun tavern.

  • 2 battalions
  • Capt. Samuel Nicholas "1st Commandant of MC 1834? correct answer: Marines came under the department of the navy. The National security act of 1947? correct answer: Was amended in 1952, states the present structure. 1776? correct answer: - First marine landing during the revolutionary war.
  • new providence in the Bahamas
  • seized guns and supplies.
  • Uniform of the day leather neck. 1805? correct answer: - stormed the Barbary pirates at Burma
  • "shores of Tripoli"
  • raised the "Stars and Stripes" for first time in eastern hemisphere. 1847? correct answer: - occupied the "halls of Montezuma" during the battle of Chapultepec in Mexico City
  • also helped take California 1859? correct answer: - Under colonel Robert e lee, u.s. Army, stormed U.S. Arsenal at harpers ferry to stop slave revolt led by John brown. 1868? correct answer: - EGA
  • adopted by Brigadier general Jacob Zeilin, 7th commandant,
  • the globe and anchor signify worldwide service and sea traditions,
  • spread eagle is a symbol of the nation. 1883? correct answer: - Motto of marine corps semper fidelis was adopted.
  • Latin for Always faithful
  • Leaked photos were leaked leading to 1st battle of Fallujah April 2004 correct answer: - first battle of Fallujah, "operation Vigilant Resolve"
  • Unsuccessful attempt to capture Fallujah 2004 - b correct answer: november 7, "operation Phantom Fury" (operation Al Fajr) launched to recapture Fallujah. 1,350 insurgent deaths, 95 Americans and 560 wounded. November 13 2004 correct answer: Fallujah was fully occupied by u.s forces. Operation phantom fury was bloodiest battle of the war in Iraq. Battle of belleu wood correct answer: One of marines greatest battle in history. They crushed a German offensive. French renamed the area "the wood of the brigade of marines". Germans evaluated the marines as storm troops and called them "teufelhunden". Battle of Guadalcanal correct answer: August 7 1942. 1st marine division landed on beaches in Solomon Islands as first land offensive in WW2. Battle was first combat test of new amphibious doctrine. A crucial turning point of the war in the pacific. Other Amphibious landings in Solomon Islands correct answer: New Georgia, Choiseul(fent) and Bougainville. The battle of Tarawa correct answer: Tarawa Atoll and Betio islands. Jap commander said it would take a million Americans 100 years to conquer. On November 20 1943 marines landed and secured the island in 76 hours. Many marines drowned due to extended reefs. Battle of Mariana islands correct answer: Islands were invaded due to the need of airfields for Air Force and bases for the navy. They landed on islands of Saipan, Guam, and Tinian. LTJG Holland M Smith led combined soldiers and marines of 136,000. Greatest number of troops up to that time under marine command. Battle of Iwo Jima correct answer: February 19 1945 was the largest and bloodiest battle in marine history. 23,300 casualties. Admiral chester Nimitz said uncommon valor was a common virtue. Battle of Choisin Reservoir correct answer: In North Korea in November 1950 marines were cut off after Chinese communists entered the war. Marines smashed 7 out of 10 divisions. During the retrograde marines properly evacuated their wounded and dead, and maintained tactical integrity. Battle of Hue city correct answer: During the Vietnamese holiday of tet in January 1968. Communists launched a surprise attack. First times marines in built up areas since Korean War. Fighting was house to house and city was secured on 25 February 1968. Brevet brigadier general Archibald Henderson correct answer: Commandant in 1820 for 39 years. Led the corps through the Indian wars, the war with Mexico, the opening of China, and the disorders in Central America. Grand old man of marine corps.

Sergeant major John Quick correct answer: At Cuzco well in Guantanamo bay Cuba, he participated in operation to seize an advanced base for Atlantic fleet battalion of marines. Won medal of honor for semaphoring an emergency lift of the naval bombardment. Sergeant major Dan Daly correct answer: Won a Medal of Honor for the Chinese boxer rebellion and one during the first Caco war in Haiti. With his unit pinned down at belleu wood he said "come on, you sons of a bitches, do you want to live forever?" Louis B "chesty" Puller correct answer: Lieutenant General served in Nicaragua through periods of unrest. Known as tiger of the mountains for scouring through the jungles. English bulldog named chesty as mascot. Major Gregory R Pappy Boyington correct answer: Commanded VMH-214 the black sheep. Top ranking flying ace with 28 victories. Corporal Ira H Hayes correct answer: Pima Indian photographed of the second flag raising on mount Suribachi after Japanese stronghold was taken on February 23 1945 Private Opha Mae Johnson correct answer: First enlisted woman on August 13 1918.They were known as skirt marines and marinettes. Brigadier general Margaret A Brewer correct answer: Then a colonel, served as director of women marines. Seventh and last director. Last post world war woman to hold the position. First woman general officer on May 11 1978. Robert E Bush correct answer: Earned Medal of Honor with 1st marine division during battle of Okinawa. Under fire he moved from one casualty to another. Plasma in one hand he emptied his pistol, accounting for 6 enemy casualties despite wounds and loss of eye. Went on to be a champion for veterans causes. John jack H Bradley correct answer: One of six men in flag raising over Iwo Jima.navy cross for running through a barrage of gunfire to aid an exposed marine. performed life saving treatment while positioning himself to shield his patient and pulled him thirty yards. "only real heroes were those that did not come back." Robert R Ingram correct answer: Earned Medal of Honor in Vietnam. Crawled through bullet spattered terrain giving aid to marines and collecting ammo from the dead. Suffered 4 bullet wounds. Saved many lives that day. O-1 correct answer: 2nd lieutenant O-2 correct answer: 1st lieutenant O-3 correct answer: Captain

What are MARFORS organized as? correct answer: As MAGTFs and either employed as part of naval expeditionary forces or separately as part of larger joint or combined forces. Where are the commanders of MARFORCOM located? correct answer: Virginia Where are commanders of MARFORPAC located? correct answer: Hawaii Marine corps security forces correct answer: 3400 marines who protect key naval installations and facilities worldwide Marine security guard correct answer: Detachments at embassies and consulates for security. 121 posts in 115 countries What does headquarters, u.s. Marine corps consist of? correct answer: The commandant and staff agencies that assist and advise him What is the commandant directly responsible to the secnav for? correct answer: Traider; training,requirements, administration, internal organization, discipline, efficiency, and readiness. What is a MAGTF? correct answer: The marine corps principle organization for the conduct of all missions across the range of military operations. MAGTFs are balanced combined arms forces with__? correct answer: Organic ground aviation and sustainment elements. What do MAGTFs provide combatant commanders with? correct answer: A versatile expeditionary force that is capable of responding to a broad range of crisis and conflict situations. MAGTFs are trained and equipped to perform what kind of missions. correct answer: Missions ranging from humanitarian assistance to intense combat. May be shore or sea based. MAGTFs provide the joint force commander with the capability of reconstitution which is the ability of__ correct answer: An expeditionary force to regenerate, reorganize, replenish, and reorient itself for a new mission without having to return to its home base. What does the MEF headquarters group provide? correct answer: Command and support functions for the MHG. Also admin and logistical support functions. How does the marine aircraft wing, air combat element, support the MAGTF mission? correct answer: Performing some or all of the six functions of marine corps aviation. The ACE can transition between sea bases and expeditionary airfields without loss of what? correct answer: Capability

What is the marine division, ground combat element, task organized to do? correct answer: Conduct ground operations in support of the MAGTF. Can vary in size from a rifle platoon to one or more marine divisions. What is the marine logistics group, logistic combat element task organized to do? correct answer: Full range of combat service support functions and capabilities needed to support the continued readiness and sustainability of the MAGTF. Where is 1st MEF correct answer: Southern California and Arizona. Where is 2nd MEF correct answer: North and South Carolina Where is 3rd MEF correct answer: Japan and Hawaii What is a MEB correct answer: A MAGTF built around a reinforced infantry regiment, an aircraft group and logistic combat element Who normally commands the MEB correct answer: A brigadier general What does a command element do for a MEB correct answer: Command and control, commanded by a general and contains a surveillance reconnaissance intelligence group What is an air combat element; ACE; In a MEB correct answer: Marine aircraft group. MAG What is a ground combat element;GCE;in a MEB correct answer: Reinforced infantry regiment referred to as regimental combat team. RCT What is a logistics combat element;LCE; in a MEB correct answer: Combat logistics regiment.CLR What is the Marine expeditionary unit; special operations capable;"mew sock" correct answer: Standard forward deployed marine expeditionary organization What is the "mew sock mission" correct answer: To provide a forward deployed, sea based, rapid crisis response capability to execute a full range of military operations What are a "mew socks" selected maritime special operations correct answer: TRIVSSS T in TRIVSSS correct answer: Tactical recovery of aircraft personnel; TRAP R in TRIVSSS correct answer: Recon and surveillance I in TRIVSSS correct answer: In extremis hostage recovery V in TRIVSSS correct answer: Visit, board, search, and seizure of vessels

Who are enlisted reporting seniors correct answer: E-7 to E-9 for E-4 and below Who is the rater correct answer: Chief or military or civilian equivalent Who is the senior rater correct answer: Division officer or department head When must the performance counseling be provided correct answer: At the midpoint and when the report is signed What are the three types of reports correct answer: Regular, concurrent, and operational What are operational commander reports correct answer: Submitted on C O's by operational commanders who are not their regular reporting seniors What should the comments block be based on correct answer: Verifiable facts What is a 3.4 correct answer: Progressing What is the standard letter used for correct answer: To correspond officially within or outside the DOD What is an endorsement used for correct answer: To forward comments, recommendations,or info or redirect a letter What do memorandums provide correct answer: Less formal way to correspond What are the types of memorandums correct answer: From-to, plain-paper, letterhead, decision, and memorandums of agreement or understanding What is the page 2 correct answer: Dependency and emergency data What is the page 4 correct answer: Enlisted quals What is the page 5 correct answer: History of assignments What is the page 13 correct answer: Administrative remarks What is the purpose of the UCMJ correct answer: Promotes good order and discipline What is a summary court martial composed of correct answer: One active duty commissioned officer of O-3 or higher and may not try any officers What is a special court martial composed of correct answer: A military judge and 3 active duty members, if accused is officer no member can be warrant officer or enlisted; if enlisted then 1/ can be members of the court can be enlisted

What is a general court martial composed of correct answer: A judge and no less than 5 active duty What is the purpose of NJP correct answer: Give the commander the ability to maintain good order and discipline What is the MCO for hazing correct answer: 1700. What are the four elements of suicide prevention correct answer: Training, intervention, response, and reporting What is the enlisted distribution verification report; EDVR correct answer: Monthly statement of an activitiy's enlisted personnel account EDVR section 1 correct answer: Prospective personnel gains EDVR section 2 correct answer: Prospective personnel losses EDVR section 3 correct answer: Alphabetic listing of all enlisted members assigned to the activity EDVR section 4 correct answer: Total personnel account of the activity EDVR section 5 correct answer: Personnel status summary EDVR section 6 correct answer: Distribution navy enlisted classification code DNEC EDVR SECTION 7 correct answer: NEC billet and personnel inventory EDVR section 8 correct answer: Individuals who are qualified in NEC's EDVR section 9&10 correct answer: Diary message summary and duty preference listing EDVR section 11 correct answer: Individual security data, citizenship code, involuntary extension months, pay entry base date, time in rate, advancement effective date, and FORMAN status and action date EDVR section 12 correct answer: Officer and enlisted personnel in an embarked or TAD status to augment normal manning. Acronym for nine common elements in combat environment correct answer: I fear HIV CCCC First I in I fear HIV CCCC correct answer: Isolation Fear in I fear HIV CCCC correct answer: Fear stress and mental fatigue

article 5 of the code of conduct correct answer: when questioned should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give name,rank,service number, and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability.I will make no verbal or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies,or harmful to their cause article 6 of the code of conduct correct answer: I will never forget that I am an American fighting for freedom,responsible for my actions, and dedicated to the principles,which made my country free. I will trust in my god and my country what are the rights of a prisoner of war correct answer: housing, food, medical care, hygiene facilities, religious faith, personal property,mail, packages, POW representative, humane treatment, Geneva conventions, camp regulations the right to receive sanitary,protective housing and clothing correct answer: favorable conditions, clothing, underwear, and footwear shall be supplied in sufficient quantities the right to receive sufficient amount of food to sustain good health correct answer: food rations shall be sufficient in quantity,quality,and variety.sufficient drinking water shall be supplied the right to receive adequate medical care correct answer: medical inspections shall be held each month the right to receive necessary facilities for proper hygiene correct answer: every guarantee of hygiene and healthfulness the right to practice religious faith correct answer: premises shall be provided where religious services are held the right to keep personal property except weapons, military equipment and military documents correct answer: sums of money may not be taken except by order of an officer the right to send and receive mail correct answer: not less than 2 letters and 4 cards monthly the right to receive packages containing non contraband items such as food, clothing, education materials, religious items, and recreational materials correct answer: shall be allowed by individual parcel or shipments the right to select a fellow POW to represent u correct answer: by secret ballot every 6 months select a representative the right to receive humane treatment correct answer: must be humanely treated the right to have a copy of the Geneva conventions and its annexes including any special agreements posted where it can be read and must be written in the proper language and available upon request correct answer: copies shall be provided upon request

the right to have a copy of all camp regulations,notices,orders and publications about POW conduct posted where it can be read and in the proper language correct answer: must be given in language they understand what info are POW's required to give their captors correct answer: name, rank, service number, and date of birth what labor can POW's perform correct answer: not military, degrading, dangerous, nor healthy What are the nine general first aid rules correct answer: Get organized; preliminary exam; ABC's; fractures; remove clothing; reassure patient; avoid touching open wounds; position patient onside or back; always carry feet first Class 1 in tactical care correct answer: Minor professional treatment Class 2 in tactical care correct answer: Immediate life saving measures Class 3 in tactical care correct answer: Treatment can be delayed without jeopardy to life or loss of limb Class 4 in tactical care correct answer: Extensive treatment beyond immediate medical capabilities Priority 1 in nontactical care correct answer: Correctable life threatening illnesses or injuries Priority 2 in nontactical care correct answer: Serious but not life threatening injuries Priority 3 in nontactical care correct answer: Minor injuries Priority 4 in nontactical care correct answer: Dead or fatally injured What is a primary survey correct answer: Rapid initial assessment to detect and treat life threatening conditions What is a secondary survey correct answer: Complete and detailed assessment A,B,C,D,E process correct answer: Airway, breathing, circulation, disability and expose What is the essence of shock control correct answer: To start treatment before symptoms fully develop signs and symptoms of shock correct answer: restlessness, glassy dull eyes, dilated pupils,gasping for air, pale ashen gray skin, cyanotic lips, cool clammy skin, weak and thready pulse.

when will u not splint the arm for elbow fractures in the position you find it correct answer: if there is no pulse distal to the fracture treatment for thigh fracture correct answer: craefully straighten the leg; outside splint from armpit to foot, inside from crotch to foot; fastened above ankle,over the knee, just below the hip, around the pelvis and below armpit; tie legs together. hare or thomas half ring splints are best treatment for lower leg fracture correct answer: pnematic splint or three splints around leg or pillow with 2 splints on sides of leg. when available use hare or thomas half ring splints treatment for clavicle fracture correct answer: sling and swathe splint. bend arm on injured side, place forearm across chest 4 inches above elbow supported by a wide sling.wide roller bandage to secure victims arm to body. figure 8 bandage may also be used treatment fo rib fracture correct answer: use a swathe in which the arm on the injured side is strapped to chest. place arm on injured side against chest w/ forearm raised 45 degrees. wide strips of adhesive limit the ability of the chest to expand first degree burn correct answer: epidermal layer is irritated reddened and tingling, healing occurs within a week. 2nd degree burn correct answer: epidermal blisters, mottled appearance, and red base, damage into but not through the dermis, recovery occurs within 2-3 weeks 3rd degree burn correct answer: full thickness injury penetrating into muscle and fatty tissue; pain absent at burn site; tissue will be white for scalds and black from charring burns first aid for burns correct answer: remove jewelry and clothes not adhereing to wounds; for extensive burns I V therapy w/ ringers lactate; aspirin, morphine or demorol. ice water immersion if less than 20% aid station care for burns correct answer: shave and clean area; booster dose of tetanus toxoid; 1/16 inch thickness of sulfamylon or silvadene every 12 hours treatment for heat cramps correct answer: cool not cold water with 1 tablespoon of salt to one liter or quart of water; manual pressure and gently massage signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion correct answer: weakness,dizzy, headache, ashen gray, cool moist clammy skin,dilated pupils treatment for heat exhaustion correct answer: loosen clothing, apply cool wet cloths to head, axilla, groin, ankles and fan victim; 1 teaspoon of salt in liter of water signs and symptoms of heat stroke correct answer: flushed very dry very hot, constricted pupils and fast strong pulse

Treatment for heat stroke correct answer: Douse the body with cold water; apply cold wet towels to whole body; remove as much clothing as possible; cold packs under arms, around neck, ankles, and in groin; immerse in cold water; temp check every 10 minutes below 102 Treatment for hypothermia correct answer: Remove wet cold clothes; hot water tub 100- 105 degrees; buddy warming; warm liquids, no alcohol or smoking Signs and symptoms of immersion foot correct answer: Tingling and numbness; swollen legs, feet, and or hands; bluish skin and painful blisters Treatment for immersion foot correct answer: Remove wet shoes and socks; DO NOT rupture blisters or apply ointments; if skin is broken, place a sterile sheet under extremity and gently wrap Signs and symptoms of superficial frostbite correct answer: Skin will feel hard but under will be soft allowing it to move over bony ridges Treatment for superficial frostbite correct answer: Rewarm feet and hands by placing under armpits, against buddy abdomen, or between legs; warm water immersion and never rub frostbite area Treatment for deep frostbite correct answer: Thaw boots and clothing before removing; immersion in water but not pour water directly on injured area; afterwards keep skin dry; hot liquids no alcohol or smoking Procedures for iodine tablets correct answer: 1 tablet for clean water, 2 for cloudy, replace cap wait 5 minutes; shake canteen; loosen cap and tip canteen over; tighten cap wait 25 minutes a total of 30 minutes Procedures for calcium hypochlorite correct answer: Fill canteen with water; fill canteen cup half water and C H ampule and stir; fill cap with solution and add to water in canteen; place on cap shake and wait 30 minutes Cat hole characteristics correct answer: 1 ft wide 1 ft deep used on the march Saddle trench characteristics correct answer: 4 ft long 2 1/2 deep 1 ft wide 1-3 day bivouac sites What are the duties of the interior guard correct answer: Preserve order; protect property; enforce regulations First general order correct answer: To take charge of this post and all govt. property in view Second general order correct answer: To walk my post In a military manner, keeping always on the alert and observing everything that takes place within sight or hearing

What is THREAT CON alpha correct answer: A general threat of possible terrorist activity What is THREAT CON bravo correct answer: An increased and more predictable threat What is THREAT CON charlie correct answer: An incident has occurred or intelligence has been received indicating that some form of attack is imminent What is THREAT CON delta correct answer: A terrorist attack has occurred or intelligence indicates an attack against a specific location is likely What are ways to protect yourself from terrorist attacks correct answer: Maintain a low profile; be unpredictable; remain vigilant; protect your automobile What is top secret correct answer: Disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage What is secret correct answer: Disclosure could cause serious damage What is confidential correct answer: Disclosure could cause damage What is the acronym that foreign agents use in collecting info correct answer: OREOL First o in OREOL correct answer: Observe and photograph activities R in OREOL correct answer: Read news releases E in OREOL correct answer: Eavesdrop on electronic communications Second o in OREOL correct answer: Obtain classified documents L in OREOL correct answer: Listen to careless talk what does SINCGARS stand for correct answer: single channel ground and airborne radio system what is the maximum range for low power setting correct answer: manpack/ vehicular 200 meters to 400 meters what is the maximum range for medium power setting correct answer: 400 Meters to 5KM what is the maximum range for high power setting correct answer: 5KM to 10KM waht is the maximum range for power amplifier correct answer: 10KM to 40KM what will increase ranges for both voice and data transmissions correct answer: use of a OE- 254

whats the first thing you must do to assemble a manpack radio correct answer: check and install the battery what are the four methods to tie down an antenna correct answer: stay down clamp/clip; snap free clamp/clip what do the procedures for loading single channel frequencies require correct answer: setting the proper switches; pressing the correct number keys for the frequency you want; and storing the load by pressing the STO button how soon do you have to enter another number or store the frequency correct answer: 7 seconds what does the manpack consist of correct answer: antenna, handset, and field pack what is the BA 5372/U correct answer: hold up battery non rechargeable what is the BA 5590 correct answer: lithium, manpack primary power battery, non rechareable what is the BA 590 correct answer: rechargeable manpack secondary battery what is the procedure to perform operators level maintenance on the AN/PRC 119 correct answer: inspect the equipment, clean the equipment, and perform operation checks, report discrepancies when performing operation checks, what do you use to check the accessories for cleanliness and serviceability correct answer: FITCAL F in FITCAL correct answer: Feel the radio and accessories I in FITCAL correct answer: inspect gear for cracks T in FITCAL correct answer: tighten all connectors C in FITCAL correct answer: clean with brushes and rags A in FITCAL correct answer: adjust all controls and knobs L in FITCAL correct answer: lubricate rubber boots and handset cords description and data of M9 correct answer: semi auto, magazine fed, recoil operated, double action chamber for the 9mm Maximum range and maximum effective range of M9 service pistol correct answer: 1800 meters, and 50 meters