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Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs): A Comprehensive Question and Answer Guide, Exams of Nursing

A valuable resource for students studying stis. it presents a series of multiple-choice questions and answers covering various aspects of stis, including their causes, symptoms, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention. The questions cover a wide range of topics, from common stis like chlamydia and gonorrhea to more complex infections such as syphilis and hiv. the detailed answers offer a comprehensive understanding of each sti, making it an excellent study tool for students in nursing, medicine, or public health.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 05/02/2025

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FINAL TEST BANK OB- QUESTIONS AND ONLY
CORRECT ANSWERS
1. Syphilis is a complex disease that can lead to serious systemic illness and even death if left untreated.
Which manifestation differentiates primary syphilis from secondary syphilis?
Appearance of a chancre 2 months after infection
2. The human papillomavirus (HPV), also known as genital warts, affects 79 million Americans, with an
estimated number of 14 million new infections each year. The highest rate of infection occurs in young
women, ages 20 to 24 years. Prophylactic vaccination to prevent the HPV is now available. Which
statement regarding this vaccine is inaccurate?
Only one vaccine for HPV is available
3. Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) is the most commonly reported in American women?
Chlamydia
4. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends which therapy for the treatment
of the HPV?
Topical podofilox 0.5% solution or gel
5. A client exhibits a thick, white, lumpy, cottage cheeselike discharge, along with white patches on her
labia and in her vagina. She complains of intense pruritus. Which medication should the nurse
practitioner order to treat this condition?
Fluconazole
6. Which laboratory testing is used to detect the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
HIV antibody testing
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17

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FINAL TEST BANK OB- QUESTIONS AND ONLY

CORRECT ANSWERS

  1. Syphilis is a complex disease that can lead to serious systemic illness and even death if left untreated. Which manifestation differentiates primary syphilis from secondary syphilis? Appearance of a chancre 2 months after infection
  2. The human papillomavirus (HPV), also known as genital warts, affects 79 million Americans, with an estimated number of 14 million new infections each year. The highest rate of infection occurs in young women, ages 20 to 24 years. Prophylactic vaccination to prevent the HPV is now available. Which statement regarding this vaccine is inaccurate? Only one vaccine for HPV is available
  3. Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) is the most commonly reported in American women? Chlamydia
  4. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends which therapy for the treatment of the HPV? Topical podofilox 0.5% solution or gel
  5. A client exhibits a thick, white, lumpy, cottage cheeselike discharge, along with white patches on her labia and in her vagina. She complains of intense pruritus. Which medication should the nurse practitioner order to treat this condition? Fluconazole
  6. Which laboratory testing is used to detect the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? HIV antibody testing
  1. Which condition is the most life-threatening virus to the fetus and neonate? Hepatitis B virus
  2. Which treatment regime would be most appropriate for a client who has been recently diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? Bed rest in a semi fowlers position
  3. On vaginal examination of a 30-year-old woman, the nurse documents the following findings: profuse, thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor and complaints of pruritus. Based upon these findings, which condition would the nurse suspect? Bacterial vaginosis
  4. Which viral sexually transmitted infection is characterized by a primary infection followed by recurrent episodes? Herpes simplex virus 2
  5. The nurse should understand the process by which the HIV infection occurs. Once the virus has entered the body, what is the time frame for seroconversion to HIV positivity? 6-12 weeks
  6. A 25-year-old single woman comes to the gynecologists office for a follow-up visit related to her abnormal Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The test revealed that the client has the HPV. The woman asks, what is that? Can you get rid of it? Which is the best response for the nurse to provide? HPV stands for human papillomavirus. It is a sexually transmitted infection that may lead to cervical cancer.
  7. Which STI does not respond well to antibiotic therapy? Genital herpes
  1. The nurse providing care in a womens health care setting must be knowledgeable about STIs. Which STIs can be successfully treated? Chlamydia
  2. What is the drug of choice for the treatment of gonorrhea? Ceftriaxone
  3. Which sexual behaviors are associated with exposure to an STI? (Select all that apply.) Fellatio Unprotected anal intercourse Multiple sex partners
  4. Which statements regarding the HPV are accurate? (Select all that apply.) Are thought to be more common in pregnant women than in women who are not pregnant. Were previously called genital warts. may cause cancer.
  5. A 23-year-old primiparous client with inconsistent prenatal care is admitted to the hospitals maternity unit in labor. The client states that she has tested positive for the HIV. She has not undergone any treatment during her pregnancy. The nurse understands that the risk of perinatal transmission can be significantly decreased by a number of prophylactic interventions. Which interventions should be included in the plan of care? Intrapartum treatment with antiviral medications c section Avoidance of breastfeeding
  6. A group of infections known collaboratively as TORCH infections are capable of crossing the placenta and causing serious prenatal effects on the fetus. Which infections are included in this group of organisms? (Select all that apply.)

Toxoplasmosis Other infections herpes simplex virus

  1. The nurse should be familiar with the use of the five Ps as a tool for evaluating risk behaviors for STIs and the HIV. Which components would the nurse include in her use of the five Ps as an assessment tool? (Select all that apply.) Number of partners Prevention of pregnancy Protection from STIs Past history
  2. Counseling and education are critical components of the nursing care of women with herpes infections. Clients should be taught to identify triggers that might result in a herpes attack. Which factors are possible triggers for a recurrence? (Select all that apply.) Menstruation Trauma Febrile illness ultraviolet light
  3. A woman has chosen the calendar method of conception control. Which is the most important action the nurse should perform during the assessment process? Obtain a history of the womans menstrual cycle lengths for the past 6 to 12 months.
  4. A married couple is discussing alternatives for pregnancy prevention and has asked about fertility awareness methods (FAMs). Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? FAMs can be effective for many couples; however, they require motivation.
  5. A woman who has a seizure disorder and takes barbiturates and phenytoin sodium daily asks the nurse about the pill as a contraceptive choice. What is the nurses best response? Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill.
  1. The lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) of birth control is popular in developing countries and has had limited use in the United States. As breastfeeding rates increase, more women may rely upon this method for birth control. Which information is most important to provide to the client interested in using the LAM for contraception? This popular method of birth control works best if the mother is exclusively breastfeeding.
  2. Although reported in small numbers, toxic shock syndrome (TSS) can occur with the use of a diaphragm. If a client is interested in this form of conception control, then the nurse must instruct the woman on how best to reduce her risk of TSS. Which comment by the nurse would be most helpful in achieving this goal? You should always remove your diaphragm 6 to 8 hours after intercourse. Dont use the diaphragm during menses, and watch for danger signs of TSS, including a sudden onset of fever over 38.4 C, hypotension, and a rash.
  3. Which term best describes the conscious decision concerning when to conceive or avoid pregnancy as opposed to the intentional prevention of pregnancy during intercourse? Family planning
  4. In the acronym BRAIDED, which letter is used to identify the key components of informed consent that the nurse must document? A stands for alternatives.
  5. Which benefit regarding FAMs makes it an appealing choice for some women? Absence of chemicals and hormones
  6. The nurse is providing contraceptive instruction to a young couple who are eager to learn. The nurse should be cognizant of which information regarding the natural family planning method? This practice is the only contraceptive method acceptable to the Roman Catholic Church.
  1. Which nonpharmacologic contraceptive method has a failure rate of less than 25%? Standard days variation
  2. Which contraceptive method best protects against STIs and the HIV? Barrier methods
  3. Nurses should be cognizant of what information with regard to the noncontraceptive medical effects of combination oral contraceptives (COCs)? Effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements. Importantly, the nurse must be aware of which information related to the use of IUDs? IUDs containing copper can provide an emergency contraception option if inserted within a few days of unprotected intercourse.
  4. Which statement is the most complete and accurate description of medical abortions? They can be either elective or therapeutic
  5. A woman is using the basal body temperature (BBT) method of contraception. She calls the clinic and tells the nurse, My period is due in a few days, and my temperature has not gone up. What is the nurses mostappropriate response? You probably didn't ovulate during this cycle
  6. A male client asks the nurse why it is better to purchase condoms that are not lubricated with nonoxynol-9 (a common spermicide). Which response by the nurse is the most accurate? Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against STIs as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of the HIV and can cause genital lesions.
  7. Which statement regarding the term contraceptive failure rate is the most accurate? It varies from couple to couple, depending on the method and the users.

Gallbladder disease Myocardial infarction and stroke Breast tenderness and fluid retention

  1. The client and her partner are considering male sterilization as a form of permanent birth control. While educating the client regarding the risks and benefits of the procedure, which information should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) Pain, bleeding, and infection are possible complications. Pregnancy may still be possible. Secondary sex characteristics are unaffected.
  2. Which test is performed around the time of ovulation to diagnose the basis of infertility? Ultrasonography
  3. An infertility specialist prescribes clomiphene citrate (Clomid, Serophene) for a woman experiencing infertility. She is very concerned about the risk of multiple pregnancies. What is the nurses most appropriate response? This is a legitimate concern. Would you like to discuss further the chances of multiple pregnancies before your treatment begins?
  4. A man smokes two packs of cigarettes a day. He wants to know if smoking is contributing to the difficulty he and his wife are having getting pregnant. Which guidance should the nurse provide? Smoking can reduce the quality of your sperm
  5. A couple comes in for an infertility workup, having attempted to achieve pregnancy for 2 years. The woman 37 years of age has always had irregular menstrual cycles but is otherwise healthy. The man has fathered two children from a previous marriage and had a vasectomy reversal 2 years ago. The man has had two normal semen analyses, but the sperm seem to be clumped together. What additional testing is needed? FSH levels
  1. A couple is attempting to cope with an infertility problem. They want to know what they can do to preserve their emotional equilibrium. What is the nurses most appropriate response? Get involved with a support group. I’ll give you some names.
  2. The nurse working with clients who have infertility concerns should be aware of the use of leuprolide acetate (Lupron) as a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist. For which condition would this medication be prescribed? Uterine fibroids
  3. Which condition would be inappropriate to treat with exogenous progesterone (human chorionic gonadotropin)? Thyroid dysfunction
  4. In vitro fertilizationembryo transfer (IVF-ET) is a common approach for women with blocked fallopian tubes or with unexplained infertility and for men with very low sperm counts. A husband and wife have arrived for their preprocedural interview. Which explanation regarding the procedure is most accurate? The procedure begins with collecting eggs from your wifes ovaries.
  5. With regard to the assessment of female, male, or couple infertility, the nurse should be aware of which important information? The investigation will take several months and can be very costly.
  6. The nurse is having her first meeting with a couple experiencing infertility. The nurse has formulated the nursing diagnosis, Deficient knowledge, related to lack of understanding of the reproductive process with regard to conception. Which nursing intervention does not apply to this diagnosis? Evaluate the couple’s support system.
  7. Male fertility declines slowly after age 40 years; however, no cessation of sperm production analogous to menopause in women occurs in men. What condition is not associated with advanced paternal age?
  1. A couple arrives for their first appointment at an infertility center. Which of the following is a noninvasive test performed during the initial diagnostic phase of testing? Sperm analysis
  2. Many factors, male and female, contribute to normal fertility. Approximately 40% of cases of infertility are related to the female partner. Which factors are possible causes for female infertility? (Select all that apply.) Congenital or developmental Hormonal or ovulatory Tubal or peritoneal Uterine
  3. A probable cause for increasing infertility is the societal delay in pregnancy until later in life. What are the natural reasons for the decrease in female fertility? (Select all that apply.) Ovulation dysfunction Organ damage from toxins Endometriosis Tubal infections
  4. Women who have undergone an oophorectomy, have ovarian failure, or a genetic defect may be eligible to receive donor oocytes (eggs). Which statements regarding oocyte donation are accurate? (Select all that apply.) Donor eggs are fertilized with the male partners sperm. Donors are under 35 years of age. Recipient undergoes hormonal stimulation.
  1. Which procedure falls into the category of micromanipulation techniques of the follicle? (Select all that apply.) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ISCI) Assisted hatching
  2. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is called by the postpartum support nurse for follow-up. Which symptoms would reassure the nurse that the client is not experiencing a manic episode? Increased appetite and lack of interest in activities
  3. When a woman is diagnosed with postpartum depression (PPD) with psychotic features, what is the nurses primary concern in planning the clients care? Harming her infant
  4. During an inpatient psychiatric hospitalization, what is the most important nursing intervention? Supervising and guiding visits with her infant
  5. Despite warnings, prenatal exposure to alcohol continues to far exceed exposure to illicit drugs. Which condition is rarely associated with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)? Respiratory conditions
  6. As a powerful central nervous system (CNS) stimulant, which of these substances can lead to miscarriage, preterm labor, placental separation (abruption), and stillbirth? Cocaine
  7. According to research, which risk factor for PPD is likely to have the greatest effect on the client postpartum? Prenatal depression
  1. The use of methamphetamine (meth) has been described as a significant drug problem in the United States. The nurse who provides care to this client population should be cognizant of what regarding methamphetamine use? Methamphetamines are stimulants with vasoconstrictive characteristics
  2. With one exception, the safest pregnancy is one during which the woman is drug and alcohol free. What is the optimal treatment for women addicted to opioids? Methadone maintenance treatment
  3. Reports have linked third trimester use of selective serotonin uptake inhibitors (SSRIs) with a constellation of neonatal signs. The nurse is about to perform an assessment on the infant of a mother with a history of a mood disorder. Which signs and symptoms in the neonate may be the result of maternal SSRI use? (Select all that apply.) Fever shivering and irritability
  4. Screening questions for alcohol and drug abuse should be included in the overall assessment during the first prenatal visit for all women. The 4 Ps Plus is a screening tool specifically designed to identify the need for a more in-depth assessment. Which are the correct components of the 4 Ps Plus? (Select all that apply.) parents partner past pregnancy
  5. An infant at 36 weeks of gestation has increasing respirations (80 to 100 breaths per minute with significant substernal retractions). The infant is given oxygen by continuous nasal positive airway pressure (CPAP). What level of partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) indicates hypoxia? 45mmHg
  6. On day 3 of life, a newborn continues to require 100% oxygen by nasal cannula. The parents ask if they may hold their infant during his next gavage feeding. Considering that this newborn is physiologically stable, what response should the nurse provide?

You may hold your baby during the feeding.

  1. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents? Surfactant improves the ability of your baby’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide
  2. An infant is to receive gastrostomy feedings. Which intervention should the nurse institute to prevent bloating, gastrointestinal reflux into the esophagus, vomiting, and respiratory compromise? Slow, small, warm bolus feedings over 30 minutes
  3. A premature infant never seems to sleep longer than an hour at a time. Each time a light is turned on, an incubator closes, or people talk near her crib, she wakes up and inconsolably cries until held. What is the correct nursing diagnosis beginning with ineffective coping, related to? Environmental stress
  4. Which clinical findings would alert the nurse that the neonate is expressing pain? Cry face; eyes squeezed; increase in blood pressure
  5. A newborn was admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) after being delivered at 29 weeks of gestation to a 28-year-old multiparous, married, Caucasian woman whose pregnancy was uncomplicated until the premature rupture of membranes and preterm birth. The newborns parents arrive for their first visit after the birth. The parents walk toward the bedside but remain approximately 5 feet away from the bed. What is the nurse’s most appropriate action? Go to the parents, introduce him or herself, and gently encourage them to meet their infant. Explain the equipment first, and then focus on the newborn.
  6. An infant is being discharged from the NICU after 70 days of hospitalization. The infant was born at 30 weeks of gestation with several conditions associated with prematurity, including RDS, mild bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD), and retinopathy of prematurity (ROP), requiring surgical treatment. During discharge teaching, the infant’s mother asks the nurse if her baby will meet developmental milestones on time, as did her son who was born at term. What is the nurses most appropriate response?

Parents of high risk infants need special support and detailed contact information

  1. By understanding the four mechanisms of heat transfer (convection, conduction, radiation, and evaporation), the nurse can create an environment for the infant that prevents temperature instability. Which significant symptoms will the infant display when experiencing cold stress? Mottled skin with acrocyanosis
  2. When evaluating the preterm infant, the nurse understands that compared with the term infant, what information is important for the nurse to understand? Greater surface area in proportion to weight
  3. When providing an infant with a gavage feeding, which infant assessment should be documented each time? Response to the feeding
  4. An infant at 26 weeks of gestation arrives intubated from the delivery room. The nurse weighs the infant, places him under the radiant warmer, and attaches him to the ventilator at the prescribed settings. A pulse oximeter and cardiorespiratory monitor are placed. The pulse oximeter is recording oxygen saturations of 80%. The prescribed saturations are 92%. What is the nurses most appropriate action at this time Listening to breath sounds and ensuring patency of the endotracheal tube, increasing oxygen and notifying ad physician
  5. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is an inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa. The signs of NEC are nonspecific. What are generalized signs and symptoms of this condition? Abdominal distention, temperature instability and grossly bloody stools
  6. In caring for the preterm infant, what complication is thought to be a result of high arterial blood oxygen level? ROP
  1. Which condition might premature infants who exhibit 5 to 10 seconds of respiratory pauses, followed by 10 to 15 seconds of compensatory rapid respiration, be experiencing? Breathing in a respiratory pattern common to preterm infants
  2. With regard to infants who are SGA and intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), the nurse should be aware of which information? Infants with asymmetric IUGR have the potential for normal growth and development.
  3. NEC is an acute inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa that can progress to perforation of the bowel. Approximately 2% to 5% of premature infants succumb to this fatal disease. Care is supportive; however, known interventions may decrease the risk of NEC. Which intervention has the greatest effect on lowering the risk of NEC? Breast feeding 118.Because of the premature infants decreased immune functioning, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse include in a plan of care for a premature infant? Risk for infection
  4. What is the most important nursing action in preventing neonatal infection? Good hand washing
  5. Which risk factors are associated with NEC? (Select all that apply.) Polycythemia anemia congenital heart disease
  6. Infants born between 34 0/7 and 36 6/7 weeks of gestation are called late-preterm infants because they have many needs similar to those of preterm infants. Because they are more stable than early- preterm infants, they may receive care that is similar to that of a full-term baby. These infants are at increased risk for which conditions? (Select all that apply.)