Download EMT AAOS ALL Questions With 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Updated advanced EMT (AEMT) and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
EMT AAOS ALL Questions With 100%
Correct Answers | Verified | Updated
advanced EMT (AEMT) - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -An individual who has training in specific aspects of advanced life support, such as intravenous therapy, and the administration of certain emergency medications advanced life support (ALS) - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Advanced lifesaving procedures, some of which are now being provided by the EMT Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Comprehensive legislation that is designed to protect individuals with disabilities against discrimination automated external defibrillator (AED) - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A device that detects treatable life- threatening cardiac arrhythmias (ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia) and delivers the appropriate electrical shock to the patient certification - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A process in which a person, an institution, or a program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical care continuous quality improvement (CQI) - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A system of internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS system emergency medical dispatch (EMD) - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews emergency medical responder (EMR) - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The first trained individual, such as a police officer, fire fighter, lifeguard, or other rescuer, to arrive at the scene of an emergency to provide initial medical assistance
emergency medical services (EMS) - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A multidisciplinary system that represents the combined efforts of several professionals and agencies to provide prehospital emergency care to the sick and injured emergency medical technician (EMT) - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -An individual who has training in basic life support, including automated external defibrillation, use of a definitive airway adjunct, and assisting patients with certain medications Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Federal legislation passed in 1996, Its main effect in EMS is in limiting availability of patients' health care information and penalizing violations of patient privacy intravenous (IV) therapy - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The delivery of medication directly into a vein licensure - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The process whereby a competent authority, usually the state, allows individuals to perform a regulated act medical control - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Physician instructions that are given directly by radio or cell phone (online/direct) or indirectly by protocol/guidelines (off-line/indirect), as authorized by the medical director of the service program medical director - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The physician who authorizes or delegates to the EMT the authority to provide medical care in the field National EMS Scope of Practice Model - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A document created by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) that outlines the skills performed by various EMS providers paramedic - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -An individual who has extensive training in advanced life support, including endotracheal intubation, emergency pharmacology, cardiac monitoring, and other advanced assessment and treatment skills primary prevention - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Efforts to prevent an injury or illness from ever occurring primary service area (PSA) - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The designated area in which the EMS service is responsible for the provision of prehospital emergency care and transportation to the hospital
chest leads - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The leads that are used only with a 12-lead ECG and must be placed exactly; includes leads V1, V2, V3, V4, V5, and V Combitube - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A multilumen airway device that consists of a single tube with two lumens, two balloons, and two ventilation ports; an alternative airway device if endotracheal intubation is not possible or has failed drip chamber - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The area of the administration set where fluid accumulates so that the tubing remains filled with fluid drip sets - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Another name for administration sets Electrocardiogram (ECG) - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -an electronic tracing of the heart's electrical activity through leads, which originate in the electrocardiograph machine and contain electrodes that attach to the patient's chest and/or limbs electrical conduction system - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A network of special cells in the heart through which an electrical current flows, causing contractions of the heart that produce pumping of blood end-tidal carbon dioxide detectors - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Plastic, disposable indicators that signal by color change when an endotracheal tube is in the proper place endotracheal intubation - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Insertion of an endotracheal tube directly through the larynx between the vocal cords and into the trachea to maintain and protect an airway external jugular IV - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -IV access established in the external jugular vein of the neck extubation - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Removal of a tube after it has been placed gastric tube - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -An advanced airway adjunct that provides a channel directly into a patient's stomach, allowing for removal of gas, blood, and toxins and for instilling medications and nutrition gauge - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A measure of the interior diameter of the catheter, It is inversely proportional to the true diameter of the catheter
infiltration - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The escape of fluid into the surrounding tissue when the IV catheter is not in the vein intraosseous (IO) needles - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Rigid, boring catheters placed into a bone to provide intravenous fluids isotonic crystalloids - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Intravenous solutions that do not cause a fluid shift into or out of the cell; examples include normal saline and lactated Ringer's solutions King LT - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A disposal supraglottic airway used as an alternative to tracheal or mask ventilation laryngeal mask airway - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -An advanced airway device that is blindly inserted into the mouth to isolate the larynx for direct ventilation; consists of a tube and a mask or cuff that inflates to seal around the laryngeal opening laryngoscope - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -An instrument used to give a direct view of the patient's vocal cords during endotracheal intubation limb leads - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The four leads used with a 4-lead ECG; placed on or close to the right arm, left arm, right leg, and left leg macrodrip set - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -An administration set named for the large orifice between the piercing spike and the drip chamber; allows for rapid fluid flow into the vascular system microdrip set - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -An administration set named for the small orifice between the piercing spike and the drip chamber; allows for carefully controlled fluid flow and is ideally suited for medication administration multilumen airways - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Advanced airway devices, such as the esophageal tracheal Combitube and the pharyngeotracheal lumen airway, that have multiple tubes to aid in ventilation and will work whether placed in the trachea or esophagus normal sinus rhythm - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A rhythm that has consistent P waves, consistent P-R intervals, and a regular heart rate of between 60 and 100 beats/min
systemic complication - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A moderate to severe complication affecting the systems of the body; after administration of medications, the reaction might be systemic ventricular fibrillation - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Disorganized, ineffective twitching of the ventricles, resulting in no blood flow and a state of cardiac arrest ventricular tachycardia - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A rapid heart rhythm in which the electrical impulse begins in the ventricle (instead of the atrium), which may result in inadequate blood flow and eventually deteriorate into cardiac arrest backboard - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A device that is used to provide support to a patient who is suspected of having a hip, pelvic, spinal, or lower extremity injury. Also called a spine board, trauma board, and longboard. bariatrics - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A branch of medicine concerned with the management (prevention or control) of obesity and allied diseases. basket stretcher - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A rigid stretcher commonly used in technical and water rescues that surrounds and supports the patient yet allows water to drain through holes in the bottom. Also called a Stokes litter. diamond carry - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A carrying technique in which one EMT is located at the head end of the stretcher or backboard, one at the foot end, and one at each side of the patient; each of the two EMTs at the sides uses one hand to support the stretcher/backboard so that all are able to face forward as they walk. direct ground lift - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A lifting technique that is used for patients who are found lying supine on the ground with no suspected spinal injury. emergency move - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A move in which the patient is dragged or pulled from a dangerous scene before assessment and care are provided. extremity lift - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A lifting technique that is used for patients who are supine or in a sitting position with no suspected extremity or spinal injuries.
flexible stretcher - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A stretcher that is a rigid carrying device when secured around a patient but can be folded or rolled when not in use. portable stretcher - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A stretcher with a strong rectangular tubular metal frame and rigid fabric stretched across it. power grip - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A technique in which the litter or backboard is gripped by inserting each hand under the handle with the palm facing up and the thumb extended, fully supporting the underside of the handle on the curved palm with the fingers and thumb. power lift - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A lifting technique in which the EMT's back is held upright, with legs bent, and the patient is lifted when the EMT straightens the legs to raise the upper body and arms. rapid extrication technique - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A technique to move a patient from a sitting position inside a vehicle to supine on a backboard in less than 1 minute when conditions do not allow for standard immobilization. scoop stretcher - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A stretcher that is designed to be split into two or four sections that can be fitted around a patient who is lying on the ground or other relatively flat surface; also called an orthopedic stretcher. stair chair - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A lightweight folding device that is used to carry a conscious, seated patient up or down stairs. wheeled ambulance stretcher - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A specially designed stretcher that can be rolled along the ground. A collapsible undercarriage allows it to be loaded into the ambulance. Also called the stretcher or an ambulance stretcher. acromioclavicular (AC) joint - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A simple joint where the bony projections of the scapula and the clavicle meet at the top of the shoulder. articular cartilage - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A pearly layer of specialized cartilage covering the articular surfaces (contact surfaces on the ends) of bones in synovial joints. calcaneus - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The heel bone.
point tenderness - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Tenderness that is sharply localized at the site of the injury, found by gently palpating along the bone with the tip of one finger. position of function - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A hand position in which the wrist is slightly dorsiflexed and all finger joints are moderately flexed. reduce - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Return a dislocated joint or fractured bone to its normal position; set. retroperitoneal space - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The space between the abdominal cavity and the posterior abdominal wall, containing the kidneys, certain large vessels, and parts of the gastrointestinal tract. sciatic nerve - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The major nerve to the lower extremities; controls much of muscle function in the leg and sensation in most of the leg and foot. sling - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A bandage or material that helps to support the weight of an injured upper extremity. splint - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A flexible or rigid appliance used to protect and maintain the position of an injured extremity. sprain - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A joint injury involving damage to supporting ligaments, and sometimes partial or temporary dislocation of bone ends. strain - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Stretching or tearing of a muscle; also called a muscle pull. subluxation - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A partial or incomplete dislocation. swathe - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A bandage that passes around the chest to secure an injured arm to the chest. tibia - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The shin bone, the larger of the two bones of the lower leg. tourniquet - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The bleeding control method used when a wound continues to bleed despite the use of direct pressure and elevation; useful if a patient is bleeding severely from a partial or complete amputation.
traction - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Longitudinal force applied to a structure. zone of injury - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The area of potentially damaged soft tissue, adjacent nerves, and blood vessels surrounding an injury to a bone or a joint. closed abdominal injury - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -An injury in which there is soft-tissue damage inside the body but the skin remains intact. evisceration - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The displacement of organs outside of the body. flank - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The posterior region below the margin of the lower rib cage. guarding - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Involuntary muscle contractions (spasms) of the abdominal wall in an effort to protect an inflamed abdomen; a sign of peritonitis. hollow organs - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Structures through which materials pass, such as the stomach, small intestines, large intestines, ureters, and bladder. Kehr sign - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Left shoulder pain caused by blood in the peritoneal cavity. open abdominal injury - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -An injury in which there is a break in the surface of the skin or mucous membrane, exposing deeper tissue to potential contamination. peritoneal cavity - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The abdominal cavity. solid organs - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Solid masses of tissue where much of the chemical work of the body takes place (eg, the liver, spleen, pancreas, and kidneys). cardiac tamponade (pericardial tamponade) - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Compression of the heart as the result of buildup of blood or other fluid in the pericardial sac, leading to decreased cardiac output. closed chest injury - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -An injury to the chest in which the skin is not broken, usually caused by blunt trauma. commotio cordis - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A blunt chest injury caused by a sudden, direct blow to the chest that occurs only during the critical portion of a person's heartbeat.
simple pneumothorax - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Any pneumothorax that is free from significant physiologic changes and does not cause drastic changes in the vital signs of the patient. spontaneous pneumothorax - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A pneumothorax that occurs when a weak area on the lung ruptures in the absence of major injury, allowing air to leak into the pleural space. sucking chest wound - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -An open or penetrating chest wall wound through which air passes during inspiration and expiration, creating a sucking sound. See also open pneumothorax. tachypnea - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Increased respiratory rate. tension pneumothorax - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A life-threatening collection of air within the pleural space; the volume and pressure have both collasped the involved lung and caused a shift of the mediastinal structures to the opposite side. traumatic asphyxia - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A pattern of injuries seen after a severe force is applied to the chest, forcing blood from the great vessels back into the head and neck. anterograde (posttraumatic) amnesia - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Inability to remember events after an injury. basilar skull fractures - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Usually occur following diffuse impact to the head (such as falls, motor vehicle crashes); generally result from extension of a linear fracture to the base of the skull and can be difficult to diagnose with a radiograph (x-ray). Battle's sign - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Bruising behind an ear over the mastoid process that may indicate a skull fracture. cerebral edema - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Swelling of the brain. closed head injury - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Injury in which the brain has been injured but the skin has not been broken and there is no obvious bleeding. concussion - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without actual physical damage to the brain.
connecting nerves - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Nerves in the spinal cord that connect the motor and sensory nerves. coup-contrecoup injury - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Dual impacting of the brain into the skull; coup injury occurs at the point of impact; contrecoup injury occurs on the opposite side of impact, as the brain rebounds. distraction - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The action of pulling the spine along its length. epidural hematoma - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -An accumulation of blood between the skull and the dura mater. eyes-forward position - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A head position in which the patient's eyes are looking straight ahead and the head and torso are in line. four-person log roll - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The recommended procedure for moving a patient with a suspected spinal injury from the ground to a long backboard. intervertebral disk - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The cushion that lies between two vertebrae. intracerebral hematoma - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Bleeding within the brain tissue (parenchyma) itself; also referred to as an intraparenchymal hematoma. intracranial pressure (ICP) - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The pressure within the cranial vault. involuntary activities - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Actions of the body that are not under a person's conscious control. linear skull fractures - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Account for 80% of skull fractures; also referred to as nondisplaced skull fractures; commonly occur in the temporal-parietal region of the skull; not associated with deformities to the skull. meninges - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Three distinct layers of tissue that surround and protect the brain and the spinal cord within the skull and the spinal canal.
burns - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Injuries in which soft-tissue damage occurs as a result from thermal heat, frictional heat, toxic chemicals, electricity, or nuclear radiation. closed injuries - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Injuries in which damage occurs beneath the skin or mucous membrane but the surface remains intact. compartment syndrome - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Swelling in a confined space that produces dangerous pressure; may cut off blood flow or damage sensitive tissue. contact burn - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A burn caused by direct contact with a hot object. contamination - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The presence of infectious organisms or foreign bodies on or in objects such as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient's body. contusion - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A bruise from an injury that causes bleeding beneath the skin without breaking the skin. crush syndrome - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Significant metabolic derangement that develops when crushed extremities or body parts remain trapped for prolonged periods. This can lead to renal failure and death. crushing injury - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -An injury that occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body. dermis - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The inner layer of the skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings, and blood vessels. ecchymosis - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Bruising or discoloration associated with bleeding within or under the skin. epidermis - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The outer layer of skin that acts as a watertight protective covering. evisceration - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The displacement of organs outside of the body. fascia - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The fiberlike connective tissue that covers arteries, veins, tendons, and ligaments.
flame burn - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A burn caused by an open flame. flash burn - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A burn caused by exposure to very intense heat, such as in an explosion. full-thickness (third-degree) burns - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Burns that affects all skin layers and may affect the subcutaneous layers, muscle, bone, and internal organs, leaving the area dry, leathery, and white, dark brown, or charred. hematoma - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A mass of blood in the soft tissues beneath the skin. incision - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A sharp, smooth cut. laceration - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A jagged, open wound. mucous membranes - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The lining of body cavities and passages that communicate directly or indirectly with the environment outside the body. occlusive dressings - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A dressing made of Vaseline-impregnated gauze, aluminum foil, or plastic that protects a wound from air and bacteria. open injuries - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Injuries in which there is a break in the surface of the skin or the mucous membrane, exposing deeper tissue to potential contamination. partial-thickness (second-degree) burns - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Burns affecting the epidermis and some portion of the dermis but not the subcutaneous tissue; characterized by blisters and skin that is white to red, moist, and mottled. penetrating wound - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -An injury resulting from a sharp, pointed object. rabid - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Describes an animal that is infected with rabies. rule of nines - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A system that assigns percentages to sections of the body, allowing calculation of the amount of skin surface involved in the burn area. scald burn - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A burn caused by hot liquids.
crushing injury - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -An injury that occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body. dermis - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The inner layer of the skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings, and blood vessels. ecchymosis - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Bruising or discoloration associated with bleeding within or under the skin. epidermis - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The outer layer of skin that acts as a watertight protective covering. evisceration - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The displacement of organs outside of the body. fascia - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The fiberlike connective tissue that covers arteries, veins, tendons, and ligaments. flame burn - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A burn caused by an open flame. flash burn - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A burn caused by exposure to very intense heat, such as in an explosion. full-thickness (third-degree) burns - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Burns that affects all skin layers and may affect the subcutaneous layers, muscle, bone, and internal organs, leaving the area dry, leathery, and white, dark brown, or charred. hematoma - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A mass of blood in the soft tissues beneath the skin. incision - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A sharp, smooth cut. laceration - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A jagged, open wound. mucous membranes - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The lining of body cavities and passages that communicate directly or indirectly with the environment outside the body. occlusive dressings - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A dressing made of Vaseline-impregnated gauze, aluminum foil, or plastic that protects a wound from air and bacteria.
open injuries - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Injuries in which there is a break in the surface of the skin or the mucous membrane, exposing deeper tissue to potential contamination. partial-thickness (second-degree) burns - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Burns affecting the epidermis and some portion of the dermis but not the subcutaneous tissue; characterized by blisters and skin that is white to red, moist, and mottled. penetrating wound - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -An injury resulting from a sharp, pointed object. rabid - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Describes an animal that is infected with rabies. rule of nines - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A system that assigns percentages to sections of the body, allowing calculation of the amount of skin surface involved in the burn area. scald burn - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A burn caused by hot liquids. steam burn - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A burn caused by exposure to hot steam. superficial (first-degree) burns - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Burns affecting only the epidermis; characterized by skin that is red but not blistered or actually burned through. thermal burns - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -Burns caused by heat. aorta - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The main artery that receives blood from the left ventricle and delivers it to all the other arteries that carry blood to the tissues of the body. arterioles - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The smallest branches of arteries leading to the vast network of capillaries. artery - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -A blood vessel, consisting of three layers of tissue and smooth muscle that carries blood away from the heart. capillaries - Answer ✔️ ✔️ -The small blood vessels that connect arterioles and venules; various substances pass through capillary walls, into and out of the interstitial fluid, and then on to the cells.
