






























Study with the several resources on Docsity
Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan
Prepare for your exams
Study with the several resources on Docsity
Earn points to download
Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan
Community
Ask the community for help and clear up your study doubts
Discover the best universities in your country according to Docsity users
Free resources
Download our free guides on studying techniques, anxiety management strategies, and thesis advice from Docsity tutors
A set of practice questions with correct answers related to cardiovascular nursing. It covers topics such as pulse pressure, ventricular rhythms, myocardial infarction, hypertension management, cardiomyopathy, heart failure, and cardiac catheterization. The questions are designed to test knowledge and understanding of key concepts in cardiovascular nursing.
Typology: Exams
1 / 38
This page cannot be seen from the preview
Don't miss anything!
"Regarding pulse pressure, we know that the normal resting pulse pressure should be 40 mmHg. A) True
"Widened pulse pressure is an indicator of increased cardiovascular risk. A) True
"Identify the average rate of an escaping ventricular rhythm. A) 20-40 bpm B) 50-100 bpm C) 100-160 bpm
"The most dangerous complication associated with a prolonged QT interval is the development of: A) atrial fibrillation B) Torsade de pointes (ventricular tachycardia) C) Junctional tachycardia
"Which of the following coronary arteries are involved when myocardial ischemia or injury is present in the anterior wall? A) left anterior descending (LAD) B) circumflex (Cx) C) obtuse marginal (OM)
"Which of the following coronary arteries are involved when myocardial ischemia or injury is present in the anterior and lateral walls? A) left anterior descending (LAD) B) circumflex (Cx) C) obtuse marginal (OM)
"When there is an inferior infarction, evidence based practice standards tell us that there is upwards of a 40% association of a right ventricular infarction necessitating that we record: A) a standard 12-lead ECG B) a 15-lead ECG involving the recording of the right side of the chest (V4R-V6R) C) a 15-lead ECG involving the recording of the posterior chest wall (V7-V9)
ECG involving the recording of the right side of the chest (V4R-V6R)" "What is the most important predictor of a positive patient outcome following a myocardial infarction? A) the height of ST elevation B) CK-MB levels C) troponin I levels
"What effect does high blood pressure have on the Renin-Angiotensin system? A) high pressures decrease renin production in the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys resulting in vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure B) high pressures increase renin production in the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys resulting in vasoconstriction and a increase in blood pressure C) high pressures decrease renin production in the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys resulting in
renin production in the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys resulting in vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure" "In the management of stage 2 hypertension you may expect to see the patient prescribed: A) thiazide type diuretics B) ACEI or ARB C) beta blockers or calcium channel blockers
combination therapy" "Which of the following agents is less effective as mono therapy in the management of African American patients with hypertension: A) ACE-I B) calcium channel blockers C) alpha blockers
D) Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia E) all of the above
"Dilated cardiomyopathy is often associated with: A) alcohol abuse B) myocarditis C) valvular heart disease D) hypertension E) all of the above
"Systolic dysfunction, or heart failure w/ reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is characterized by: A) failure of pump function of ventricles, dilated thick wall; eccentrically hypertrophied B) decreased EF, SV, and CO C) backward flow of blood from LV into the lungs D) increased pulmonary pressures E) dyspnea, orthopnea, and wheezing
"In left ventricular heart failure we may find: A) distended neck veins (increased JVD) B) systolic murmur such as mitral regurgitation C) S3 and S D) decreased PA pressure E) all of the above
"In right ventricular heart failure we may find: A) distended neck veins (increased JVD) B) hepatic engorgement C) weight gain D) increased CVP E) all of the above
"Nursing management for patients on ACE inhibitors includes monitoring: A) for hypotension & dizziness B) for worsening renal function - checking serum creatinine levels C) for the development of an irritating cough
D) for hyperkalemia E) all of the above
"Manifestations of diastolic dysfunction or heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) include: A) impaired relaxation during diastole B) increased filling pressures in LA and LV due to stiff noncompliant ventricles C) fluid accumulation in feet, ankles, and legs D) may have a normal ejection fraction (EF) E) all of the above
"With regard to a left heart catheterization, we know that: A) a catheter is fed through a vein to the right side of the heart B) it provides direct pressure measurements of the aorta, left atria, and left ventricle C) it provides direct pressure measurements of the superior vena cava, right atria and right ventricle
"With regard to a right heart catheterization, we know that: A) a catheter is fed through a vein to the left side of the heart B) it provides direct pressure measurements of the aorta, left atria, and left ventricle C) it provides direct pressure measurements of the superior vena cava, right atria and right ventricle
right ventricle" "Identify risk associated with cardiac catheterization: A) arrhythmias B) cardiac tamponade C) infection D) stroke
"Possible complications associated with atherectomy include all of the following except: A) damaged to the artery
digoxin (Lanoxin), furosemide (Lasix), enalapril maleate (Vasotec), and aspirin. The patient reports a 5-lb (2.27-kg) weight gain over the past two days. The cardiac-vascular nurse's initial action is to: A) document the weight and reassess the patient at the next session. B) inquire about the patient's medication compliance. C) notify the patient's physician. D) review the patient's most recent nuclear scan.
"As the cardiac-vascular nurse prepares to administer an experimental cardiac drug to a patient who is participating in a research study, the patient states that he or she no longer wants the medication. The nurse advises the patient that: A) he or she has a right to refuse the medication and to withdraw from the study. B) participation in the study is critical to improving the quality of patient outcomes. C) the medication dose has been scheduled for administration. D) the primary investigator will speak with the patient about his or her decision.
withdraw from the study." "Which is the primary consideration when preparing to administer thrombolytic therapy to a patient who is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI)? A) History of heart disease. B) Sensitivity to aspirin. C) Size and location of the MI. D) Time since onset of symptoms.
"A 55-year-old patient who is diagnosed with an evolving myocardial infarction (MI) insists on going home. The cardiac-vascular nurse encourages the patient to be admitted because the greatest risk within the first 24 hours of sustaining an MI is: A) heart failure. B) pulmonary embolism. C) ventricular aneurysm.
D) ventricular fibrillation.
"Excessive alcohol use while on warfarin (Coumadin) therapy leads to: A) decreased anticoagulation effect. B) decreased international normalized ratio. C) increased anticoagulation effect. D) increased vitamin K absorption.
"While the cardiac-vascular nurse preceptor is orienting a graduate nurse on the telemetry unit, a patient experiences cardiac arrest. Which action by the preceptor, during the emergency cardiac care procedure, facilitates the graduate nurse's competence and professional development? A) Asking the graduate nurse to review the policy and procedure for cardiac arrest. B) Assigning the graduate nurse to comfort the family during the arrest. C) Directing the graduate nurse to attempt IV access. D) Involving the graduate nurse in the resuscitation by assigning a basic task.
assigning a basic task." "A patient is admitted to the hospital for a carotid angiogram with stent placement. The patient's spouse states, "I don't want my spouse to find out there is a risk of a stroke connected with this procedure because he or she won't sign the consent form." The cardiac-vascular nurse's most appropriate action is to: A) assess the patient's level of understanding of risks, benefits, and alternatives. B) assure the patient's spouse that the risk of stroke is minimal. C) offer the patient emotional support and reinforce the benefits of the procedure.
patient's level of understanding he risks, benefits, and alternatives." "A patient who is recovering from a myocardial infarction may benefit from meditation because this technique: A) decreases sympathetic nervous system activity. B) decreases vasodilation.
"A patient recently had a cardiac catheterization via right-radial approach. The patient has a compression device in place. The patient complains of numbness and pain in the right hand. The cardiac-vascular nurse notes a diminished pulse, with a cool and cyanotic hand. The nurse: A) calls the physician. B) performs an Allen's test. C) reduces the pressure on the puncture site.
on the puncture site." "In an assessment for intermittent claudication, the cardiac-vascular nurse assesses for leg pain and cramping with exertion, then asks the patient: A) "Does shortness of breath accompany the leg pain?" B) "Does this same type of pain occur without activity?" C) "Is the leg pain relieved by rest?"
rest?"" "A client with fat embolism is receiving 100% FiO2 on a mechanical ventilator and continues to be hypoxic. Which of the following measures can improve his oxygenation? A. Add positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) B. Give beta blockers C. Give diuretics D. Increase the FiO2 on the ventilator
can be added to open up alveoli and keep them open. There is no reason to give the client beta blockers. He may benefit from diuresis, but in the meantime, PEEP should be added to improve oxygenation. The highest amount of oxygen that can be delivered is 100% FiO2." "Which of the following are causes of orthostatic hypotension? A. Asthma, Addison's disease, alpha blockers B. Pulmonary edema, COPD, antihistamines C. Anxiety, vasculitis, beta agonist D. Diuretics, pregnancy, burns, excessive heat exposure.
Diuretics, pregnancy, burns, excessive heat exposure are causes of orthostatic hypotension. The causes of orthostatic hypotension include dehydration, prolonged bed rest, pregnancy, diabetes,
heart problems, burns, excessive heat exposure, large varicose veins, and certain neurological disorders. Drugs that can lead to orthostatic hypotension include diuretics, beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and antidepressant." "Which of the phenomena is matched correctly with the relevant of general adaptation syndrome? A. Alarm stage - initial response to a stressor B. Stage of exhaustion - point at which the stressor becomes dysfunctional. C. Stage of resistance - individual continues the fight or flight response
correct match is Alarm stage - initial response to a stressor. The alarm stage is the initial response to a stressor, which is the fight or flight syndrome. The stage of resistance or adaptation is the process whereby the individual continues the fight or flight response. The stage of exhaustion is the point at which the stressor becomes dysfunctional and can lead to disease or illness." "An 80-year-old hypertensive male is on regular antihypertensive medication, complaints of dizziness, fatigue, syncope or fainting, mental confusion, and lightheadedness after eating meals. The attending nurse records a postprandial fall in blood pressure. What is the appropriate advice to be given by the nurse to help his condition? A. Stop taking all antihypertensive medications. B. Do heavy exercise after taking meals. C. Stay in lying down position after meals. D. Eat smaller meals low in carbohydrates.
appropriate advice given by the nurse is to tell him to eat small meals low in carbohydrates. Postprandial hypotension is a condition that involves a sudden drop in blood pressure after eating. It typically affects elderly individuals with other cardiovascular comorbid condition or neurological disorders. Symptoms of the condition include dizziness, fatigue, syncope or fainting, mental confusion, and/or lightheadedness. Postprandial hypotension is more common among individuals with high blood pressure or autonomic nervous system disorders. Lifestyle modifications such as eating smaller meals low in carbohydrates more often may reduce symptoms. Also, lowering the dose of blood pressure medications may decrease the onset of postprandial hypotension." "When ventricular fibrillation occurs in the coronary care unit, the immediate action is to:
"The nurse records the EKG of an asymptomatic patient. Which of the following EKG findings confirms the diagnosis of Wenckebach phenomena? A. No definite relation between P-wave and QRS complex B. Progressive lengthening of PR interval followed by a P wave without an associated QRS complex C. Prolonged PR interval with narrow QRS complex D. Prolonged PR interval with wide QRS complex
EKG finding of progressive lengthening of PR interval followed by a P wave without an associated QRS complex confirms the diagnosis of Wenckebach phenomena. Second-degree atrioventricular block type I, also known as Wenckebach or Mobitz I, is an asymptomatic dysrhythmia typically diagnosed on electrocardiogram which shows progressive lengthening of PR interval followed by a P wave without an associated QRS complex." "An 80-year-old female patient presents with tender painful knee joints. Which of the following pharmacologic agents may be useful in treatment of her condition? A. Corticosteroids, hydroxychloroquine, dicyclomine B. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, methotrexate, corticosteroids C. Anabolic steroid, colchicines, pethidine D. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, aspirin, morphine
Pharmacologic agents used to treat inflammation include anti-inflammatory agents, corticosteroids, anti-malarial agents (such as hydroxychloroquine and other agents including methotrexate, sulfoalanine, leflunomide, anti-tumor necrosis factor medications, cyclophosphamide and mycophenolate). Pharmacologic agents used to treat joint pain and inflammation mainly are corticosteroids and NSAIDs." "A 45-year-old male patient has waist circumference of 105 cm. His blood examination shows fasting plasma glucose of 120mg/dL, triglyceride levels 180 mg/dL, high-density lipid cholesterol 30 mg/dL. He is at risk of developing which of the following set of conditions? A. Fatty liver, hepatitis, anxiety disorder B. Liver cirrhosis, insomnia, cor pulmonale C. Cardiomyopathy, hepatitis, pancreatitis D. Fatty liver, gallstones and sleep apnea
NCEP/ATP III (National Cholesterol Education Program/Adult Treatment Panel) defines metabolic syndrome as an individual with 3 or more of the following risk factors including waist circumference equal to or greater than 102 cm in men and 88 cm in women, triglyceride levels greater than 150 mg/dL, high-density lipid cholesterol less than 40 mg/dL in men and less than 50 mg/dL in women, blood pressure greater than or equal to 130/85 mmHg and fasting plasma glucose greater than 100mg/dL. Additional conditions that have been associated with metabolic syndrome include fatty liver, polycystic ovary syndrome, gallstones and sleep apnea." "A patient presenting with symptoms of shortness of breath on exertion, swelling of abdomen and extremities, decreased appetite, nausea was diagnosed to have congestive heart failure. What should be the goal of treatment in this patient? A. Controlling excess fluid accumulation, improving cardiac function and reducing cardiac workload B. Control of symptoms, prevention of disease progression, prevent complications C. Control of symptoms, treatment of comorbid condition, modify risk factor D. Reducing cardiac workload, lifestyle modification, reduce the risk of arrhythmia.
goal of treatment in patients of congestive heart failure includes controlling excess fluid accumulation, improving cardiac function and reducing cardiac workload" "A postoperative surgical patient develops pain, redness, and edema in the calf. These symptoms may potentially indicate which of the following conditions? A. Arterial embolism B. Varicose veins C. Thrombophlebitis D. Lymphedema
redness, and edema in the calf of a postoperative patient indicates thrombophlebitis, resulting from venous stasis. Venous thrombosis (thrombophlebitis) refers to inflammation of a vein precipitating thrombus (blood clot) formation; it almost always occurs in the neck veins or occasionally in the trunk. Types of venous thrombosis include a) Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT), a stationary clot that forms in the deeper veins of the legs; b) Superficial thrombophlebitis, an inflammation of a more superficial vein closer to the surface; this condition is accompanied by formation of a stationary clot within the vein. Phlebothrombosis refers to thrombus formation without venous inflammation. Phlebitis refers to inflammation of one or more veins without
"Which of the following terms correctly defines the character of pericardial friction rub? A. Rough rumbling sound B. Soft cooing sound C. Scratchy sound like velcro D. Harsh and husky
character of pericardial friction rub is a scratchy sound like velcro. Rough rumbling sound is produced by stenotic murmurs such as murmur of mitral stenosis. Soft cooing sound may be heard in some cases of aortic regurgitation." "An 80-year old male is having end-stage aortic stenosis. Definitive treatment for his condition is aortic valve replacement but he is critically ill and surgery cannot be performed at the moment. Which surgical procedure can be used as a bridge to aortic valve replacement surgery in this patient? A. Commissurotomy B. Balloon Valvuloplasty C. Aortotomy D. Debridement
Balloon valvuloplasty is done for critically ill patients with end-stage aortic stenosis as a "bridge" to aortic valve replacement. Decalcification/debridement is considered in patients with mild to moderate AS in whom the primary indication for surgery is coronary artery disease. Commissurotomy is useful in a small percentage of patients with aortic rheumatic valve disease with a trileaflet valve and minimal to no calcification." "Which of the following is not a correct pair of the signs of chronic aortic regurgitation and the organ where it is demonstrated? A. Corrigan's pulse - carotid artery B. Mueller sign - liver C. Quincke's sign - nail bed D. Duroziez's test - femoral artery
Mueller sign - liver is not a correct match.Signs of chronic AR:•Quincke's sign - pulsatile blushing of nail beds•Corrigan's pulse - visible carotid pulse•Hill's test:- femoral-brachial SBP difference > 20 (greater differences correlate with more severe AR)•Duroziez's test: light proximal compression of femoral artery produces systolic-diastolic murmur over femoral artery•Other - pulsating uvula (Mueller), liver (Rosenbach), pupil (Gandolfi), or spleen (Gerhard)" "Which of the following statements about Dressler's syndrome is not correct? A. Dressler's syndrome is a complication of myocardial infarction B. It usually develops about one to two week post-MI C. It is autoimmune in nature D. It is a result of infection of myocardium which extends to pericardium
statement that is not correct about Dressler's Syndrome is it is a result of infection of myocardium which extends to pericardium. Dressler's syndrome: Post-MI: acute (direct extension of myocardial inflammation, 1-7 days), Dressler's syndrome (autoimmune, 2-8 weeks)." "A child having aortic regurgitation has been advised for valve replacement surgery. The parents are concerned to know about the type of aortic valve prosthesis which is suitable for their child. What is the correct answer given by nurse? A. Mechanical valve B. Bioprosthetic valve C. Pulmonary autograft D. Aortic homograft
nurse should tell them that pulmonary autograft is suitable for their child. Pulmonary autograft valves are ideal for children and young adults to avoid anticoagulation. Ross procedure: replace the diseased aortic valve with the patient's own pulmonary valve and implant a semilunar valve homograft (e.g. pulmonary valve homograft) in the pulmonary position." "A 42-year old male patient is being discharged from hospital after a mitral valve replacement surgery with a metallic valve. He has been prescribed warfarin. Teaching about which of the following things should be given priority by the nurse?
"All of the following group of drugs improve the survival in congestive heart failure as shown by many studies except A. Beta blockers B. Spironolactone C. ACE inhibitor D. Nitrates
Nitrates do not improve the survival in patients of congestive heart failure. The drugs which offer mortality benefit to the patients of cardiac failure are: spironolactone, ACE inhibitor, Angiotensin receptor blocker and beta-blockers. Nitrates are used for symptom control but do not increase survival." "Which of the following correctly defines pulse pressure? A. Mean of systolic blood pressure and diastolic blood pressure B. Difference of systolic blood pressure and diastolic blood pressure C. Sum of systolic blood pressure and diastolic blood pressure D. Mean arterial blood pressure
pressure (PP) is defined as the difference of systolic blood pressure and diastolic blood pressure (PP = systolic BP (SBP) - diastolic PB (DBP))." "Which of the following surgical corrections is not part of corrective surgery done for Tetralogy of Fallot? A. Pulmonary valvotomy or pericardial patch enlargement of RV outflow tract B. RV-PA valved homograft conduit C. VSD closure with Dacron patch D. Aortic valve repair
Surgical procedures done for Tetralogy of Fallot: pulmonary valvotomy or pericardial patch enlargement of RV outflow tract or RV-PA valved homograft conduit + closure of VSD with Dacron patch"
"Which of the following sets of drugs represent inotropic drugs? A. Digoxin, dopamine, milrinone B. Verapamil, digitoxin, isosorbide dinitrate C. Diltiazem, metoprolol, amrinone D. Nicorandil, dobutamine, carvedilol
classes of agents included in the ionotropic group of drugs include cardiac glycosides such as digitalis, digitoxin, and digoxin; phosphodiesterase inhibitors such as amrinone and milrinone; and sympathomimetics such as dopamine, dobutamine, isoproterenol, metaraminol, epinephrine and norepinephrine." "Which of the following sentences correctly describes the EKG findings of Wenckebach phenomena? A. No relationship between p-wave and QRS complex B. Progressive lengthening of PR interval followed by a p wave without an associated QRS complex C. Prolonged PR interval with narrow QRS complex D. Prolonged PR interval with wide QRS complex
Second-degree atrioventricular block type I, also known as Wenckebach or Mobitz I, is an asymptomatic dysrhythmia typically diagnosed on electrocardiogram which shows progressive lengthening of PR interval followed by a p wave without an associated QRS complex." "The nurse calculates the ankle-brachial index of a patient as 0.65. Patient is concerned to know about the significance of this value. What is the correct answer given by the nurse? A. Ankle-brachial index gives the percentage of blockage in the artery of foot B. Ankle-brachial index is calculated to estimate the degree of arterial occlusion in patients suspected of having peripheral arterial disease. Values between 0.5 to 0.8 suggest moderate arterial disease C. Ankle-brachial index gives the estimate of power in the muscles of lower limb D. Ankle-brachial index gives an idea about the oxygenation of tissues
Ankle-brachial index (ABI): measure brachial pressure bilaterally (use highest pressure) and measure pressure at ankle.An abnormal ABI is defined as an index < 0.90. Values between 0.8 to