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CNOR 241 Questions with Answers latest 2025, Exams of Medicine

University of Liverpool Medicine

CNOR 241 Questions with Answers latest 2025

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

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CNOR 241 Questions with Answers

latest 2025

While completing the preoperative assessment, a nurse notices the pt R knee has been

marked by the surgeon but the pt is scheduled for the L Knee arthroplasty. What is the

best action for the nurse?

- verify with the surgeon

A pt age 7 is scheduled for a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy at the ambulatory

surgery center. During the preoperative telephone interview, the mother asks the

preoperative nurse if her daughter will be able to take her favorite stuffed animal into the

OR. Which of the following is the best response based on the child's developmental

level

- we will make sure the toy stays with your daughter until the anesthetic takes effect

The periperative registered nurse notes that the pt is taking garlic as a prophylactic cold

remedy. This information is reported to which of the following health care providers?

- Anesthesia care provider, because garlic can prolong bleeding

A pt who has just received a local anesthetic block is beginning to demonstrate

decreased breathing rate & depth, tremors, and muscle twitching, the nurse should

suspect a/an

- toxic reaction to the local anesthesia

the perioperative nurse can expect the would /ostomy/continence nurse to mark the site

for the stoma for a colostomy at

- rectus muscle

During a local procedure, the nurse notices that the pt is exhibiting a sense of

uneasiness, agitation, coughing & wheezing. The nrse should suspect a/an

- allergic reaction to the local anesthesia

the 3 tops risk factors associated w/ pt falls are medications, gait, and

- previous fall

normal hematocrit for pt age 10 years ranges from

- 34-40%

universal protocol is a process to keep pt safe in surgery. Verbal confirmation is

performed at 3 points during the perioperative period. Which of the following is identified

as 1 of the 3 critical points?

- sign in before induction of anesthesia

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Download CNOR 241 Questions with Answers latest 2025 and more Exams Medicine in PDF only on Docsity!

CNOR 241 Questions with Answers

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While completing the preoperative assessment, a nurse notices the pt R knee has been marked by the surgeon but the pt is scheduled for the L Knee arthroplasty. What is the best action for the nurse?

verify with the surgeon A pt age 7 is scheduled for a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy at the ambulatory surgery center. During the preoperative telephone interview, the mother asks the preoperative nurse if her daughter will be able to take her favorite stuffed animal into the OR. Which of the following is the best response based on the child's developmental level
we will make sure the toy stays with your daughter until the anesthetic takes effect The periperative registered nurse notes that the pt is taking garlic as a prophylactic cold remedy. This information is reported to which of the following health care providers?
Anesthesia care provider, because garlic can prolong bleeding A pt who has just received a local anesthetic block is beginning to demonstrate decreased breathing rate & depth, tremors, and muscle twitching, the nurse should suspect a/an
toxic reaction to the local anesthesia the perioperative nurse can expect the would /ostomy/continence nurse to mark the site for the stoma for a colostomy at
rectus muscle During a local procedure, the nurse notices that the pt is exhibiting a sense of uneasiness, agitation, coughing & wheezing. The nrse should suspect a/an
allergic reaction to the local anesthesia the 3 tops risk factors associated w/ pt falls are medications, gait, and
previous fall normal hematocrit for pt age 10 years ranges from
34-40% universal protocol is a process to keep pt safe in surgery. Verbal confirmation is performed at 3 points during the perioperative period. Which of the following is identified as 1 of the 3 critical points?
sign in before induction of anesthesia

a 12 year old boy is scheduled for srgery to repair a fracture to the knee involving the epiphyseal plate. The perioperative nurse recognizes the primary complication resulting from the injury is

impaired growth to the affected leg a pt suffers a cardiac arrest following the injection of bupivacaine 0.5% w/ epi 1:200, 25 mL as a peripheral nerve block for L knee arthroscopy. The perioperative nurse can anticipate obtaining which of the following drugs for the anesthesia care provider?
20% lipid emulsion Which of the following is an assessment parameter monitored through the use of perioperative nurse process?
documentation of potential needs preoperative pt assessment of the use of herbs is an important function of the perioperative nurse so that
the appropriate healthcare provider can be notified of potential risks to the surgical procedure which electrolyte is important to check preoperatively after bowel prep the day before?
Potassium AORN peripoperative nursing data set (PNDS) is the structured nursing vocabulary designed to describe nursing care in the perioperative setting. At the core of the PNDS conceptual model is the
patient What Is Defined As The Standardized Process To Keep Patients Safe In Surgery?
Universal protocol The purpose of witnessing a surgical consent is to attest to which of the following?
the signature was voluntary and not coerced Which one of the following antibiotics can potentiate neuromuscular blocking agents?
piperacillin Universal protocol is
a standardized means for ensuring pt safety during surgery during the discharge medication reconciliation process, the postanesthesia care unit nurse educates the pt and family members to
use 1 pharmacy for filling all prescriptions and OTC medications a pt scheduled for an emergency hip arthroplasty has a preoperative prothrombin result of 12 seconds. The best action of the RN circulator is to
inform the surgical team and transport the patient to the OR suite

air embolus for a pt with a history of serum cholinesterase deficiency, which of the following anesthetic agents should be avoided?
succinylcholin the perioperative registered nurse is caring for a developmentally delayed male pt aged 46 years whose cognitive level is comparable to a child aged 9 years.Which of the following is the most appropriate pain assessment tool?
using a FACES pain rating scale Pt with a possible injury within the cranium should not be placed in a ____ position unless absolutely necessary
Trendelenburg Which of the following is an example of education using the pt centered care approach?
call the dr if the blood on your dressing is bigger than a fifty cent piece greatest risk for transmitting the HIV virus is through exposure
to infected blood or body fluids via a large bore hollow needle which of the following complementary therapies may provide relief for postoperative nausea & vomiting?
peppermint aromatherapy the major benefit of using the Perioperative Nursing Data set (PNDS) is its
ability to document pt care that is unique to perioperative nursing pt preoperative health assessment form indicates that he uses a continuous positive airway pressuse (CPCP) machine at night for sleep apnea. The perioperative nurse knows to transfer this information to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse so that the pt can be monitored more closely for signs & symptoms of :
hypoxia administration of the preoperative prophylactic antibiotic is the responsibility of
a designated perioperative health care provider compared to adults, infants are at increased risk for hypothermia due to
increased body surface area to weight ratio accountability for surgical counts is a professional responsibility that rests primarily on the
scrub person & RN circulator PNDS uses ____ domains to address the perioperative nursing process
4

the nurse should place a specimen in a container with ___ when sending to pathology for a frozen section

Nothing specimens should be transferred from the sterile field to the appropriate container using ___ precautions
standard 34 year old female pt with a diagnosis of breast cancer is scheduled for a R breast mastectomy. When performing the surgical skin prep, the nurse
uses a no touch technique during prepping if the alimentary, respiratory & genitourinary tracts or oropharyngeal cavity are entered under controlled conditions without significant spillage or unusual contamination, the surgical wound is classified as which of the following?
clean contaminated wound Rational: correct wound classification should be completed after conclusion of the surgical procedures. Determination of any alteration related to spillage of contaminated contents must be considered when applying the wound classification. Any GI or GU tracts are considered clean contaminated unless alterations occur. During a subtotal thyroidectomy, both the R & L recurrent laryngeal nerves are ligated. The perioperative nurse can anticipate the need for which of the following interventions?
obtaining an emergency tracheotomy tray a pt with a fractured anterior fossa of the skull may have an alteration in which sense?
smell Rational: fractures of the anterior fossa of the skull may affect the olfactory nerve, which is responsible for the sense of smell the preferred incisional type for an exploratory laparotomy is
midline vertical Rational: a midline vertical incision is preferred for an exploratory laparotomy because it enables fast entry into the abdomen and excellent exposure to the abdominal contents and because it can be closed securely and rapidly A ____ is a major cause of death during & immediately following a surgical procedure that can result from blood pooling in low pressure areas
pulmonary embolism Rational: PE can be caused by blood clots or other debris like fat. Debris blocks the pulmonary artery or one of the branches. A PE is most often caused by stasis of blood in deep veins during extended proceedures. in the absence of a sterile transfer device when dispensing medication to the sterile field, the best option is to

mcburney's incision is used by surgeons when performin an open

appendectomy Rational: this method involved pressing on the R lower quadrant below the umbilicus and medial to the anterior superior iliac spine. This is known as the McBurney's point the primary goal for moderate sedation/analgesia is for the pt to exhibit a depression level of consciousness while
being aroused with tactile stimulation Rational: goals of moderate sedation include independent maintenance of airway and appropriate response to physical and verbal stimulation. Although the pain threshold is elevated, all painfull sensation may NOT be eliminated shoes worn by perioperative team members within the surgical suite should have closed toes & backs, low heels, and non skid soles & must meet ___ requirements
OSHA pulse oximetry measures
saturated hemoglobin in arterial blood local anesthesia injected during an epidural is diffused by the
rate of injection Rational: the concentration, volume, and rate of injection determine the spread and diffusion of medication during an epidural injection which of the following is an effective way to prevent hypothermia in the perioperative pt?
warm pt before induction of anesthesia which perioperative team member (s) is/are responsible for prevention of retained surgical items?
all perioperative team memberst Rational: The entire surgical team should be reasonable for ensuring pt safety and prevention of retained surgical items. A system that includes a multidisciplinary approach based on team skill and intervention is the best way to prevent pt injury passive drains like a Penrose provide

during the ___ stage of healing, granulation tissue can be felt as a firm ridge under the edges of the incision

proliferative Rational: granulation tissue forms during the proliferative stage and resolves during the remodeling phase blood salvage for autotransfusion should not be done intraoperatively if there is presence of amniotic fluid, enteric organisms or
Avitene

Rational: Avitene may not be removed when the cells are washed and could lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Avitene is a collagen used for hemostasis the recommended maximum cuff pressure limit for a pneumatic tourniquets applied to the lower leg is

250- Rational: Tourniquet pressure should not exceed the recommended maximum cuff pressure limits of 250-300mmHg for the lower leg. in the event of an incorrect count during closing procedures, what is the 1st thing the nurse should do?
immediately inform the surgeon Rational: the surgeon should be informed immediately to allow him to search the wound area while temporarily suspending the closure. In some cases, the surgeon may continue to close based on the pt health status. which of the following is a sign of a blood transfusion reaction in the anesthetizing pt?
temperature change Rational: pt under anesthesia may demonstrate profound hypotension, change in temperature, the presence of blood in the urine or a skin rash during intraoperative use of a monopolar electrosurgery unit, the
return electrode should be placed as close to the surgical site as possible Rational: the electrical current pathway goes from the generator through the pt to the return electrode & back to the generator. The shortest path decreases the risk of aberrant pathways that could cause the pt burns contaminated items should be transported to the decontamination area
in a closed container Rational: this minimizes the risk of staff exposure to blood-borne pathogens & other potentially infectious materials. Contaminated instruments should be separated from clean & sterile supplies before transport to the processing area Explanted medical devices that have caused serious injury to the pt must be reported to which of the following
Device manufacturer Rational: implants that have caused serious injury must be reported to the mfr. If the implant caused death, it must be reported to BOTH FDA & MFR during preoperative verification the nrse notes the pt has an implantable cardioverter- defibrillator (ICD). The nurse ensures the device is turned off prior to the planned procedure because the ___ can deprogram the device and cause it to trigger during the procedure.
wavelength

an anesthesia care provider uses stories to describe the purpose of each monitoring device to a pt aged 3 years as he prepares the child for induction. This is part of an age specific individualized plan of care addressing the child's ability to

magically think Rational: the use of stories addresses a preschoolers magical thinking and beginning use of imagination to make meaning of his surroundings heel bone is referred to as the
calcaneus perioperative registered nurse can expect the surgeon to explore the scrotum during which type of hernia repair?
indirecta Rational: hallmark of indirect hernias is that the leave the abdominal cavity at the internal inguinal ring and pass with the cord structures down the inguinal canal. The indirect hernia sac may therefore be found in the scrotum. which position puts the pt at greatest risk for development of a deep vein thrombosis ( DVT)
reverse Trendelenburg Rational: any position that places the pt legs in a dependent position increases the risk for DVT formation when delayed primary closure is required, the skin edges are closed how many days after debridement?
4 to 6 days Rational: several factors should be considered when choosing delayed primary closure. Ideally, closure should be completed 4 to 6 days after the initial procedure. The would should be cleaned and debrided prior to closure during a postoperative follwoup phone call, a pt recovering from a R lumpectomy states that she is experiencing numbness to the ring & little fingers of her R hand. The perioperative nurse suspects possible damage to the
ulnar nerve Rational: ulnar nerve innervates the middle, ring and little fingers. Numbness over the distal palmar surface of the little finger indicates ulnar nerve injury when stocking medications in the perioperative suite, it is important to stock single dose vials instead of multidose vials whenever possible because
there is less risk of using a contaminated medication Rational: single does vials do not have preservative to prevent bacterial growth. When using a multidose vial, there may be viral contamination the surgical count procedure is a method of accounting for items during the surgical procedure. When is a final count performed?

during skin closure Rational: this count verifies that all the items counted match the tally of items used ___ is an ideal complementary therapy to decrease pt anxiety during the intraoperative period, as there is no contact between the practitioner's hand and the pt
therapeutic touch in infants older than 3 months, shivering from extremes of cooling generates body heat, which increases metabolic needs and causes a ___ increase in oxygen consumption
200-500% Rational: temperature regulation is controlled by anterior hypothalamus when safely placing an adult pt in the prone position for surgery, a minimum of ___ people are required
4 Rational: a minimum of 4 and up to 6 people are needed when placing a pt in the prone position to maintain body alignment a pt who receives a score of 3 using the Glasgow coma scale for eye opening is able to open his/her eyes
in response to verbal stimuli Rational: a score of 3 on the eye opening portion of the scale signifies a response to speech which of the following procedures is considered a class 3 wound?
exploratory laparotomy with repair of ruptured diverticulum Rational: clean contaminated classification applies to procedures that enter the alimentary, genitourinary & respiratory tracts under controlled circumstances. A ruptured diverticulum is uncontrolled, contains spilled fecal material & would be classified as contaminated ( class 3) when a laser is in use during a procedure, the area around the surgical site that poses potential injury is known as
Nominal hazard zone Rational: nominal hazard zone is a specifically identified area, usually within the surgical suite, that requires the implementation of certain safety measures, lasers do have the potential to penetrate through clear windows. The nominal zone once identified should have safety control measures instituted the ___ lithotomy position is most often associated with compartment syndrome
high Rational: flexing the thighs toward the abdomen & suspending the calves vertically compromise circulation, which leads to swelling and pressure on the blood vessels & nerves in the lower leg

slow the rate of absorption of the local anesthetic by promoting vasoconstriction R/ epi causes vasoconstriction which lets the local anesthetic work longer because of decreased blood flow during a cataract extraction, which of the following medications is used as a prophylactic to reduce inflammation?
dexamethasone while a nurse is walking in the hallway to the preop area, he notices his neighbor on one of the surgical stretchers waiting for an anesthesia interview. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?
not stopping or acknowledging the neighbor R/ privacy & confidentiality of all pt information must be protected. HIPAA prevents the health care provider from sharing any pt information with any one not directly associated with pt care Techniques used to enhance effective communication with pt who have impaired communication due to stroke include decreasing environmental stimuli, presenting one idea at a time, treating the pt as an adult and
asking simple questions R/ asking simple questions allows pt who have experienced a stroke to answer with simple responses like yes and no. open ended questions may be frustrating and difficult including the pt family/caregivers in the perioperative plan of care has been found to
reduce pt & family anxiety key component of quality end of life care is communication with the pt and caregiver that demonstrates empathy
and active listening R/ pt who are in the palliative phase of care are silent, which allows time for reflection. Active listening by nurse means being attentive to what is said, observing nonverbal communication, and not onterrupting the most effective processing for transferring information related to perioperative nursing care include which of the following?
face to face report and checklist R/ the process for transferring pt information should include verbal components together with written components in a standardized documentation format that assists with continuity of patient care. If possible this interaction should occur using face to face format. when the OR circulator is relieved for lunch during a total hip replacement, the ensuing hand off communication should include the procedures progress, the family update, the implant status, and the
count status

R/ count status is important topic to discuss during lunch relief hand off. Counts may affect the status of pt care and safety, preoperative teaching, to follow procedures and anesthesiologist lunch breaks do NOT affect the safety of the currently undergoing an operative procedure the most reliable indicator of a pt level of pain is

what the pt verbalizes R/ the most reliable indicator of pain is the pt self-report. The response to pain may differ from situatin and from pt to pt during pt hand offs, providing the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse with the amount and type of local anesthetic used for a regional field block is an example of which component of SBAR communication?
Assessment R/ the method of pain management is part of assessment portion of SBAR communication between the perioperative and PACU nurses. the purpose of reconciling a pt medications prior ro discharge from an ambulatory surgery center is to
prevent duplication of postoperative prescriptions with current medications R/ reconciliation of medications can prevent prescribing errors. The updated list should be shared with the primary care physician upon discharge from the facility if a surgeon performs a procedure without a valid informed consent, he is at risk for legal action related to a/an
battery R/ the intentional touching of the pt or performing a procedure on a pt who has not given consent to the procedure is a form of battery. Assault criminalizes the threat of harm to an individual utilization and documentation of the nursing process when transferring care of the perioperative pt demonstrates
use of critical thinking skills wound classification scores are used to determine a pt risk of postoperative complication from infection. The wound classification scores were developed by the
centers for disease control and prevention ( CDC) R/wound classification scores developed by the CDC predict the pt risk of infection related to the surgical procedure. Risk is assessed based on the amount of contamination present during surgery. Classification categories include: clean, clean- contaminated, contaminated, and infected Spanish only speaking pt is undergoing an appendectomy. The perioperative nurse understands that the most appropriate way to assist in obtaining informed consent is to
obtain an interpreter

the most accurate method for verifying the effectiveness of a steam sterilizer is a

biologic indicator which of the following should be considered regarding the integrity of packing materials?
storage areas should have air temperature below 75degrees Fahrenheit R/ temp below 75F & humidity between 30-70% are environmental conditions needed to help prevent the potential for contamination. Storage should be secured away from unrestricted conditions. Closed cupboards are preferable for storage. Items should be cooled prior to storage an EPA registered disinfectant labeled to kill tuberculosis is effective against
mycobacteria when transporting instruments after a procedure, the ____ require that the instruments are put in a closed container or closed cart
OSHA regulations a reusable flexible neuroendoscope has been used for a pt who is suspected of having Creutzfedt-Jakob Disease (CJD). The safest way to process this neuroendoscope post- procedure is to
dispose of the scope R/ Shorter steam sterilization cycles and low temp sterilization technique are not effective in inactivationg prions. When used on high risk tissue, reusable instruments that are not easy to clean and cannot tolerate extended steam sterilization cycles should be discarded after use to adequately decontaminate a flexible endoscope after use, the 1st step that should be followed is to
preclean the exterior with cleaning product R/ precleaning at point of use should occur as soon as possible after the endoscope is removed from the pt. the exterior of the endoscope should be washed with an approved cleaning solution before transport to the decontamination area for leak testing and manual cleaning. Precleaning prevents drying of organic material and formation of biofilm the FDA began the voluntary ____ program to encourage physicians, nurses, pharmacists & other health care professionals to report adverse events and defects or problems with regulated drugs and devices
Medwatch R/medwatch was developed to create a national standardized reporting format for devices that have the potential for creating harm the perioperative nurse sterilizes a yankaur suction tip that has been contaminated during the case. The temperature on the print out tape for the gravity displacement steam sterilizer read 272 F ( 135C). the nurse's next action is to

return the instrument to the sterile field in an aseptic fashion R/ parameters for temperature for immediate use sterilization in a gravity displacement steam sterilizer for metal items with lumens are 270 to 272 F (132-135 C) the purpose for placing a chemical indicator tape on the outside of a package is to signify that the package
an external chemical indicator should be checked to determine that the package has been exposed to a sterilant. R/The integrity of the package and expiration date, if applicable, also determined the sterility of the contents packages prepared for sterilization should be labeled and writing should be on the
- Indicator tape R/ writing should be entered on the indicator tape, or affixed label of wrapped package, or on the " plastic side" of peel pouches. Package labels should be visible. Writing on the wrapper or the paper side of peeled pouches my compromise its barrier function. solutions used for manually cleaning flexible endoscopes should be discarded
after every use R/using a freshly prepared solution for each new cleaning process help prevent cross contamination, decreases the risk for bacterial growth in the solution, and ensures that the proper concentration of active ingredients are available for each cleaning for unwrapped, porous stainless steel item with lumens, the minimum exposure time at 270 F in a prevacuum cycle
is 4 minutes During the surgical procedure, instruments should be kept as free as possible from gross soil and debris by
wiping instruments with a sponge moistened in sterile water R/ to clean instruments DURING the surgical procedure, sterile water is preferred to saline, which can cause pitting and damage to instrument surfaces. Instrument surfaces should not be cleaned by scraping with a knife blade as damage may occur. Enzymatic foam can contaminate the contents of the back table the best health care employee to clean the operative or procedural area is
designated personnel R/ designating cleaning responsibilities to staff responsible for cleaning perioperative areas reduces errors ) the perioperative nurse brings a completed case's contaminated instruments to the decontamination area. He notes that the personal protective equipment )PPE) for workers in this area consists of gloves and shoe coverings. Which of the following is the correct response to this observation?
in addition to current PPE, workers whould be wearing a fluid resistant gown with sleeves, masks & eye protection

R/FAST can be sued to determine the presence of free fluid in the chest. It cannot help determine damaged to solid organs, and both bowel gas & subcutaneous air can distort the scan. An ECG is used to detect cardiac arrhythmias a child is at risk of blunt intestinal trauma from

seatbelt in a motor vehicle accident R/the location of a seatbelt on a child is over the abdomen. In the event of a motor vehicle accident, the seatbelt ca nhave a forceful direct pressure on the intestines and cause injury fire extinguishers that are approved by national fire protection association (NFPA) should contain carbon dioxide
or water mist R/water mist or carbon dioxide are 2 types of NFPA recommended fire extinguishers. Water mist extinguishers are classified as suitable for use on 2A:C fires & CO extingushers are classified as suitable for use on class B & C fires ____ protected types of mobile hospital tents and containers are used in areas where nuclear, chemical or biological terrorism threat exists
chemically R/in critical areas where a mobile hospital must be established, then tents and containers are chemically treated to protect those inside from dangerous threats of terrorism a pt with musculoskeletal trauma arriving to the perioperative suite should receive a neurological assessment that includes observations of skin color, skin temperature, movement, pain and ___ to create a baseline for all interventions
Pulses R/a baseline neurological assessment should include evaluation of pulses. Pulses may be absent or diminished distal to a musculoskeletal injury. Interventions can be evaluated based on the preoperative baseline that is established. the time between traumatic injury and effective treatment that directly influences pt outcomes is referred to as the
Golden hour R/the shorter the response time, the greater the survival rate. Interventions during the 1st hour post injury ( ir golden hour) have the greatest impact on influencing morbidity and mortality a pt involved in an explosion presents with a mediastinal shift. The perioperative nurse anticipates obtaining which of the following supplies?
chest drainage system R/chest tubes are inserted to correct the positive pressure building up in a pleural space. Enogh pressure can shift the pleural contents

a pt arrives in the OR with a metal post impaled through his L thigh from a fall suffered at a construction site. In preparing the site for surgery, the perioperative nurse's most appropriate response is to

prep the post and the surrounding area R/impaled objects should NOT be removed until the needed supplies & instruments area available, as they provide a tamponade effect that limits blood loss secondary injury from a blast injury is caused by
debris and projectiles R/the projectiles may cause sharp or blunt trauma and affect any body part a coup-contracoup brain injury is due to
acceleration/deceleration forces R/ coup-contracoup injury is a result of an acceleration force to one area of the brain and deceleration force to the opposite side it is important to obtain the distance of a fall during a preoperative assessment, as falls greater than ___ ft are often associated with significant spinal & aortic injuries
10 ft R/in adults, falls from a distance of more than 10 ft are usually accompanied by significant injury. Aortic and skeletal injuries are suspected in this group of pt. level 1 trauma centers must have OR staff available
in house 24/ R/ a level 1 trauma center is capable of providing total care for every type of injury on a 24 hour basis. Qualified personnel must be immediately available for rapid diagnosis & treatment swelling of muscles below the fascial layer of tissue is called
compartment syndrome R/compartment syndrome may occur when there is trauma to an extremity. The symptoms include pain, numbness & decreased motor movement. the primary assessment for a trauma pt uses the mneumonic
ABCDE R/ the 1st assessment of a trauma pt should be performed using ABCDE ( airway, breathing, circulation, disability ( neurological) & exposure/environmental ( all injuries & thermoregulation) the OR nurse is providing care for a local anesthetic procedure in the OR. The surgeon has just injected a test dose of the local anesthetic. Which of the following is a toxic reaction & needs to be communicated to the surgeon?
visual disturbance R/ symptoms of a toxic reaction to a local anesthetic include: slurred speech, numbness of the tongue, tinnitus ( ringing of the ears), & blurred vision. The nurse monitoring the

CNOR 241 Questions with Answers latest 2025, Exams of Medicine

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CNOR 241 Questions with Answers

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