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CMN 577 final exam questions & answers/CMN 577 final exam questions & answers/CMN 577 final exam questions & answers/CMN 577 final exam questions & answers/CMN 577 final exam questions & answers/CMN 577 final exam questions & answers/CMN 577 final exam questions & answers
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woman who weighs 42 kg B. a 22-year-old man who had an appendectomy 2 days ago C. a 32-year-old woman with peptic ulcer disease D. a 55-year-old man with lung cancer in remission* Most patients with DVT may be treated in the outpatient setting. However, there are multiple contraindications to outpatient treatment, most involving increased bleeding risk, including: active peptic ulcer disease, recent surgery, and weight <55 kg for males and <45 kg for females. Lung cancer or any other cancer that does not involve brain metastases is not a contraindication for outpatient treatment.
B. large ulcerations at the medial ankles* C. bruits over the femoral arteries D. an ABI of 0. Peripheral artery disease (PAD) causes intermittent claudication, pulses in the lower extremities to be faint or absent, may cause bruits over the larger arteries, and usually results in an ABI of less than 0.9 (normal is 0.9-1.2). PAD can also cause ischemic and arterial ulcers; however, these are generally found in the toes and feet. Large ulcers near the ankles are characteristic of venous ulcers and chronic venous insufficiency.
and no treatment is needed. B. Start her on Synthroid at 1.6mcg/kg/day and recheck labs in 4-6 weeks.* C. Instruct her to take her Synthroid on a full stomach for best absorption. D. Start her on Synthroid at 0.8mcg/kg/day and recheck labs in 2 weeks. Normal TSH values are 0.4-4 mIU/L and normal FreeT4 is 10-27pmlol/L. This patient has both the symptoms and lab values for hypothyroidism. Synthroid (synthetic levothyroxine) is the first line medication for hypothyroidism and starting dose is 1.6mcg/kg/day based on ideal body weight. TSH and Free T4 should be rechecked every 4-6 weeks until euthyroid and normal lab values should be obtained within 1-2 months of starting therapy.
B. sodium and potassium concentrations C. hepatic enzymes* D. serum protein electrophoresis Cigarette smoking may increase hepatic enzymes which in turn will reduce the levels of substances metabolized by the liver such as theophylline.
urology, her symptoms will only get worse and she will more than likely need surgery B. Suggest bladder training and pelvic floor muscle exercises (Kegel's) to decrease incidences of stress and urge incontinence * C. Prescribe an antimuscarinic agent such as oxybutynin immediately D. Schedule the patient for insertion of a pessary
B. Chronic Bacterial Prostatitis C. Acute Epididymitis D. Prostatodynia Acute Bacterial Prostatitis presents with fever, irritative voiding symptoms, perineal and/or suprapubic pain, and a positive UA. Chronic bacterial prostatitis does not present with fever or a positive UA. Acute epididymitis will present with painful scrotal swelling due to enlargement of the epididymitis. Prostatodynia is a noninflammatory disorder presenting with a normal UA and no fever.
B. Papanicolaou (PAP) smear with HPV co-testing* C. Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrheae testing D. Screen for Intimate Partner Violence (IPV) Chlamydial infections were higher in 14- to 24-year-old women who reported same-sex behavior when compared with exclusively heterosexual women. Untreated chlamydial infection places a woman's future fertility at risk due to potential tubal occlusion. Some women who have a chlamydia infection do not have symptoms. Secondary sequelae of chlamydia include intra-abdominal abscesses, chronic pain, and the need for mul¬tiple surgeries. Regardless of sexual orientation, the CDC recommends annual Chlamydia trachomatis (and Neisseria gonorrheae) screening from the age of first sexual activity to the age of 25 years for all women. Compared to heterosexual women, lesbians and bisexual women have higher exposure to violence throughout their lifetimes. The lifetime prevalence of sexual
assault may be as high as 85%. It is essential to screen all women for IPV but especially those in the LGBTQ community due to these alarming statistics. The primary prevention of cervical cancer is essential. All females between the ages of 12 and 26 years should receive the HPV vaccine series even if they never have been or plan to be sexually active with men. HPV is transmitted sexually between lesbian or heterosexual partners. The rate of HPV immunization among lesbians is significantly less than for heterosexual women, which creates a health disparity that needs to be corrected. While she is due for a PAP smear, the PAP with HPV co-testing is not recommended in women under the age of 30 years old.
B. the use of a condom C. abstinence D. birth control Abstinence, a monogamous sexual relationship with one partner, and proper condom use has shown to reduce the risk of adolescents developing sexually transmitted infections. On the other hand, birth control only helps to prevent pregnancy and does not offer any protection against STIs.
metformin B. start Jane on insulin C. order a 100-g oral glucose tolerance test * D. inform Jane that her results are normal Rationale: According to the ACOG, a 100-g three-hour glucose tolerance test should be ordered to diagnosis gestation diabetes for those with a result of >= 140 mg/dL on their 50-g one-hour glucose tolerance test between 24-28 wks gestation.
B. Colchicine 1.2mg po q day. C. Colchicine 0.6mg po QOD.✱ D. Colchicine 0.6mg po BID. Colchicine is cleared through the kidneys. Patients with moderate chronic kidney disease should take Colchicine once a day or once every other day to be sure to avoid complications from peripheral neuromyopathy or developing colchicine toxicity.
B. Diabetes Mellitus C. Rheumatoid Arthritis D. Lupus ✱
Commonly seen conditions that present with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome are pregnancy, Diabetes Mellitus, and Rheumatoid Arthritis.
B. Down syndrome C. Turner's Syndrome D. Epilepsy Rationale: Adolescents who suffer from ADHD, bipolar, depression, and anxiety are more associated with substance abuse.
B. (Amphetamine\Dextroamphetamine) Adderall C. (Fluoxetine) Prozac ** D. Multivitamin Fluoxetine 60mg\day has been proven to break the binge\purge cycle. If Prozac is not tolerated another SSRI can be tried.
B. Hemoglobin 14g/dL C. Serum ferritin level 50ng/mL D. Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 86fL Ferritin value less than 12ng/mL is a high reliable indicator of reduced iron stores. A ferritin level less than 30ng/mL almost always indicates iron deficiency in anyone who is anemic.
B. Low ESR, Normal CRP C. Normal ESR, Elevated CRP D. Normal ESR, Low CRP Rationale: A normal ESR does not rule out JIA, however, most patients with this diagnosis demonstrate an elevated ESR, CRP, WBC, and platelet count. RF may be positive in some patients, anti-CCP may be detectable prior to RF in some patients.
B. Apixaban C. Enoxaparin D. Aspirin Once the INR has reached the therapeutic range, it should be checked every 6 weeks or more often if needed. The Warfarin dose should then be adjusted according to the INR result and warfarin adjustment guidelines.
the lesion is covered B. After at least 24 hours of treatment with appropriate antibiotics C. After 30 days if no new infection occurs D. If no new lesions occur for 48 hours, no moist or draining lesions, and on appropriate antibiotic treatment for at least 72 hours. * Athletes are at high risk of MRSA skin infections through skin to skin contact. Clinical symptoms are localized skin infection or soft tissue abscess. To reduce transmission, he/she must be on antibiotic therapy for at least 72 hours, no new lesions that could indicate worsening infection, and no drainage.
B. Drawer test C. Spurling test D. McMurray The Lachman test provides the most accurate information about knee stability in relation to the ACL. The Drawer test is used to evaluate posterior cruciate ligament injuries. The Spurling test is used to evaluate nerve root pain in the cervical spine. The McMurray test is used to evaluate meniscus tears in the knee.
B. Type of fish consumption C. Sexually transmitted diseases** D. Cut or lacerations from a camping trip Reactive arthritis most commonly occurs in young men and usually follows a gastrointestinal illness such as dysentery or sexually transmitted disease. He presents with classic symptoms: fever, ulcers, conjunctivitis, and asymmetric oligoarthritis of weight bearing joint. No gastrointestinal complaints were mentioned, patient should be screened for gonorrhea and chlamydia.
b. constipation c. gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) d. depression **
C. "The risks of long-term HRT include heart attack, stroke, gallstones, breast cancer, and increased mortality. These risks are reduced if HRT is started after menopause." D. "There are risks associated with HRT, but they are minimal; therefore, the benefits outweigh the risks." Double-blind randomized control trials have shown that the risks of long-term HRT include heart attack, stroke, gallstones, breast cancer, and increased mortality rates. There is a decreased risk for these occurring if the HRT was started in menopause. It is still generally considered not safe to maintain long-term HRT therapy as the risks do not outweigh the benefits.
B. If a diagnostic test is sensitive for a disease, it can correctly identify patients without the disease. C. If a diagnostic test is specific for a disease, it can correctly identify patients with the disease. D. If a diagnostic test is positive, sensitivity and specificity of the test should be considered along with the patient's clinical presentation.* Rationale: The usefulness of a diagnostic test should not be based solely on their predictive measures (sensitivity and specificity), but also the probability that the patient has the disease. The sensitivity of a test is the ability to correctly identify those with the disease. The specificity of a test is the ability to correctly identify those without the disease.
B. T4 increased C. TPO elevation*
D. ESR decreased In Hashimoto thyroiditis, antithyroperoxidase (TPO) antibodies will be elevated. TPO is initially checked for diagnosis and should not be routinely checked after initial diagnosis; TSH should be monitored routinely. This patient presents with hypothyroid symptoms thus we anticipate TSH to be increased and T4 to be decreased. ESR is elevated in subacute thyroiditis while antithyroid antibody titers are low. Suppurative thyroiditis both leukocyte count and ESR are usually elevated. Serum FT4 levels tend to be higher than t3 levels due to passive release of stored thyroid hormone, which is predominately T4. In autoimmune thyroiditis, the thyroid gland may be diffusely enlarged, firm, and finely nodular and they may complain of neck tightness, depression, and chronic fatigue.
mouth rinse TID to help with pain when eating. B. Refer to Rheumatologist. C. Collect lab work consisting of a CBC, ESR, an ANA panel, and a UA. * D. treat her viral infection with supportive therapies. Systemic lupus erythematous (SLE) is an autoimmune disease. It usually presents in females ages 9-15. One must have 4/11 diagnostic criteria to be diagnosed. Common symptoms are fever, malaise, and joint pain. Others present with a malar rash (butterfly rash across cheeks), discoid rash, joint pain, + ANA, anemia, leukocytopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Once confirmation is made, a referral to a rheumatologist is warranted.
neurodegenerative disease B. The incidence of Alzheimer disease doubles every 5 years after age 60 C. Short-term memory impairment is early and prominent in most cases of Alzheimer disease
C. Long term use of oral estrogen in women over age 55 have been associated with poorer cognitive performance * D. Women who receive long term estrogen therapy have increased risk for DVT Long term use of oral estrogen in women over age 65 have been associated with poorer cognitive performance.
tetroxide effects, it should be stopped and restarted after delivery of infant. B. The dose of levothyroxine should be decreased while pregnant due to slower metabolism of medication. C. She may need to increase the dose of medication after delivery of infant due to stopping medication while pregnant. D. While pregnant she will need an increased dose of Levothyroxine for adequate CNS development of fetus. ** Pregnancy increases the levothyroxine dosage requirement. The need for an increase in dosage has been noted as early as the first trimester (5th week). Medication increase of 20-30% is needed for healthy CNS development particularly in the second trimester. During the postpartum levothyroxine dosage typically returns to pre-pregnancy level. Decreased levothyroxine dose levels is normally required directly following delivery, bilateral oophorectomy, natural menopause, or after cessation of estrogen replacement.
B. Glypizide ** C. Exenatide D. Sitagliptin
Glipizide is a Sulfonylureas with a common adverse reaction of hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia does not occur with therapeutic doses of Metformin, Exenatide (GLP-1 receptor), and Sitagliptin (DPP-4 inhibitor).
acid deficiency C.Iron deficiency anemia D.Autoimmune hemolytic anemia Although it is rare, B12 deficiency can be seen in strict vegans. Signs and symptoms include anorexia, diarrhea, neurologic syndrome, difficulty with balance, dementia, and neuropsychiatric abnormalities. S/S of folic acid deficiency are similar, but it does not affect the neurological status. S/S of iron deficiency anemia: tachycardia, shortness of breath on exertion, brittle and spooning of the nails, smooth tongue, and pica cravings. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia: fatigue, SOB, jaundice, splenomegaly, and may present with angina or heart failure.
B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Rheumatoid Arthritis D. Osteoarthritis* Osteoarthritis is a degenerative disorder characterized by morning stiffness that is brief, pain relieved with rest, and narrowed joint spaces with increased density of subchondral bone and bony cysts on radiographs.
months, and the shoulder is stiff. The pain may decrease but ROM limited. The thawing phase may last a year and movement gradually returns. There is not a refreezing phase.
B. Rotator cuff injury C. Spondylolisthesis D. Atlantoaxial Instability Cervical radiculopathy can cause neurological symptoms involving C5-7. Patients with neck pain may report associated headaches and shoulder pain.
B. Posterior aspect of the lower leg C. Medial aspect of the ankle* D. Plantar aspect of foot Rational: The most common location of an ulcer caused by venous insufficiency is at or above the medial aspect of the ankle. The patient often has a history of lower extremity edema, itching, and brownish pigmentation of the ankle.
C. Clotting factor D. INR * INR is the test and the range of 2.3 - 3.0 is considered "in range" and does not require dosage change(s).
B. Delayed gastric emptying C. Urinary frequency** D. Blurred near vision The most common side effects of both typical and Atypical antipsychotics medication are anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, delayed gastric emptying, blurred near vision, and urinary retention.
B. Mammogram at the age of 35 with no family history of breast cancer C. Cervical cancer screening at the age of 22 who is sexually active. D. CT of the lungs at the age of 55 with no history of smoking. It remains controversial to screen for prostate cancer using the PSA, using a CT of the lung to screen for cancer, or thyroid cancer.
B. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome* C. Dupuytren Contracture D. Medial Epicondylitis A Tinel sign is tingling or shock-like pain on volar wrist percussion. The Phalen sign is pain or paresthesia in the distribution of the median nerve when the patient flexes both wrists to 90 degrees for 60 seconds.
B. Osteoarthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis* D. Acute viral infection In osteoarthritis, the joint pain is relieved by rest, unlike the pain associated with rheumatoid that is associated with morning joint stiffness. Gouty arthritis is almost always intermittent and monoarticular in the early stages