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BOC Exam Questions with Answers latest 2025, Exams of Medicine

BOC Exam Questions with Answers latest 2025

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2024/2025

Available from 06/19/2025

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BOC Exam Questions with Answers
latest 2025
A trigger point can be defined as a hyperirritable node within a taught band of tissue that
results in referred pain.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Healing of hyaline cartilage depends upon
A. Depth of the defect
B. Maturity of the cartilage
C. Location of the Defect
D. All of the above
E. A & C only
D. All of the above
A football player recently suffered a knee injury resulting in a partial tear of the MCL. His
injury was treated conservatively and the tear wasn't surgerically repaired. Even after
the tissue has healed, you can expect his knee to exhibit laxity with valgus stress
because the ligament will heal with scarring and lengthen.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Hooke's law states that:
A. Deformation occurs when the stress is greater than the strain.
B. Stress and strain are inversely related
C. Elasticity is greater in the elastic region.
D. The amount of change in size or shape is proportional to the force applied.
D. The amount of change in size or shape is proportional to the force applied.
A soccer athlete comes to you complaining of right knee pain. You assess active &
passive ROM, noting knee flexion is limited both actively and passively. According to
Cyriax interpretation of ROM, what type of structure do you suspect is affected?
A. Joint structure
B. Rectus Femoris
C. Musculotendinous Tissue
D. B & C
A. Joint structure
Use of heavy pressure during massage and myofascial release techniques is good for
treating patients with a lot of muscle guarding.
A. True
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BOC Exam Questions with Answers

latest 2025

A trigger point can be defined as a hyperirritable node within a taught band of tissue that results in referred pain. A. True B. False ✔ A. True Healing of hyaline cartilage depends upon A. Depth of the defect B. Maturity of the cartilage C. Location of the Defect D. All of the above E. A & C only ✔ D. All of the above A football player recently suffered a knee injury resulting in a partial tear of the MCL. His injury was treated conservatively and the tear wasn't surgerically repaired. Even after the tissue has healed, you can expect his knee to exhibit laxity with valgus stress because the ligament will heal with scarring and lengthen. A. True B. False ✔ A. True Hooke's law states that: A. Deformation occurs when the stress is greater than the strain. B. Stress and strain are inversely related C. Elasticity is greater in the elastic region. D. The amount of change in size or shape is proportional to the force applied. ✔ D. The amount of change in size or shape is proportional to the force applied. A soccer athlete comes to you complaining of right knee pain. You assess active & passive ROM, noting knee flexion is limited both actively and passively. According to Cyriax interpretation of ROM, what type of structure do you suspect is affected? A. Joint structure B. Rectus Femoris C. Musculotendinous Tissue D. B & C ✔ A. Joint structure Use of heavy pressure during massage and myofascial release techniques is good for treating patients with a lot of muscle guarding. A. True

B. False ✔ B. False Superficial fascia is more sensitive than deep fascia. A. True B. False ✔ B. False A Grade III or IV posterior glide of the distal tibia would be used to increase plantarflexion range of motion at the talocurural joint. A. True B. False ✔ A. True During the Remodeling phase, Type 1 Collagen is broken down replaced with Type III Collagen. A. True B. False ✔ B. False Fascia contains which of the following components? A. Sensory receptors B. Vascular structures C. Adipose cells D. All of the above E. A & B ✔ D. All of the above Grade III joint mobilizations are performed as small oscillations not crossing the point of tissue resistance. A. True B. False ✔ B. False When performing joint mobilizations glides, the treatment plane is always: A. Parallel to the concave bone B. Parallel to the convex bone C. Perpendicular to the concave bone D. Perpendicular to the convex bone. ✔ A. Parallel to the concave bone Your athlete comes to you complaining of pain over the anterior shoulder and the medial palmar aspect of the hand. Examination of the glenohumeral joint and deltoid musculature reveals no abnormalies. Thus, you suspect this pain may be referred from a trigger point in what muscle?

E. Strain AB. Stress ✔ B. Elasticity Permanent change in tissue size and shape occurs. A. Elastic Range B. Elasticity C. Plastic Range D. Stiffness E. Strain AB. Stress ✔ C. Plastic Range The ability of an object to resist deformation when stress is applied. A. Elastic Range B. Elasticity C. Plastic Range D. Stiffness E. Strain AB. Stress ✔ D. Stiffness A posterior glide of the glenohumeral joint can be used to increase which ranges of motion (MARK ALL THAT APPLY) A. Flexion B. Extension C. External Rotation D. Internal Rotation ✔ A. Flexion D. Internal Rotation Your cross country athlete reports to you complaining of pain in her left hip and thigh. She indicates her pain is focused around the area of her iliac crest and lateral thigh at the level of the gluteal fold. She also describes some pain in her abdomen around her sacroiliac joint and just anterior/medial to the iliac crest. Examination of her femoracetbular joint reveals no abnormalities. Thus you suspect this pain may be referred from a trigger point in what muscle? A. Gluteus medius B. Gluteus Maximus C. Quadratus Lumborum D. Piriformis ✔ C. Quadratus Lumborum When performing instrument assisted soft tissue mobilization, the treatment time for a single identified lesion should be: A. 30-60 seconds

B. 60-90 seconds C. 3-5 minutes D. 8-10 minutes E. None of the Above ✔ A. 30-60 seconds If a muscle contracts too quickly, the muscle spindle will cause a reflexive stretch. A. True B. False ✔ B. False When applying active or passive motion during te focused stretch of a myofascial release treatment, you always move the muscle from a shortened to lengthened position. A. True B. False ✔ A. True A muscle has the greatest physiological strength in a lengthened position. A. True B. False ✔ a. True With extra-articular ligament tears, the prescence of synovial fluid dilutes the hematoma, thus preventing formation of a fibrin clot and spontaneous healing. A. True B. False ✔ B. False The convex concave rule states that, when a convex surface is moving on a stationary concave surface the role and glide occur in.. a. Opposite directions B. Same direction ✔ A. Opposite Direction Creep occurs when a low-level stress is applied over a long enough period of time to cause deformation of the tissue in its _. A. Elastic range B. Failure Point C. Maximum Strength D. Plastic Range E. Yield Point ✔ D. Plastic Range

Unable to play in tomorrows game ✔ A. Participation restriction Match the correct ICF Model term to each issue the athlete is facing. A baseball player has sustained a fracture to his first proximal phalanx. As a result of his injury he is unable to hit cause he cannot grip the bat. Because of this he will be unable to play in tomorrows game. He also works in his family machine shop to help support his five siblings and was supposed to assist in the shop on Sunday but will not be able to because of his injury. A. Participation Restriction B. Personal Factor C. Activity Limitation. D. Body structure and function impairment Unable to hit ✔ C. Activity Limitation Match the correct ICF Model term to each issue the athlete is facing. A baseball player has sustained a fracture to his first proximal phalanx. As a result of his injury he is unable to hit cause he cannot grip the bat. Because of this he will be unable to play in tomorrows game. He also works in his family machine shop to help support his five siblings and was supposed to assist in the shop on Sunday but will not be able to because of his injury. A. Participation Restriction B. Personal Factor C. Activity Limitation. D. Body structure and function impairment Family relies heavily on his assistance ✔ B. Personal Factor Flexibility is defined as the amount of mobility of a joint. A. True B. False ✔ B. False Myofascial adhesions should be treated prior to treating any trigger points in the muscle. A. True B. False ✔ B. False Which of the following are true of Instrument Assisted Soft Tisssue Mobilization Treatment (mark all that apply) A. Bruising is an intended treatment response. B. IASTM is expensive to learn and perform. C. The instrument is intended to replace the use of the clinicians hands

D. IASTM is complicated to learn E. None of the above are true. ✔ E. None of the above are true Satellite cells are able to repair large muscle injuries by fusing with adjacent myofibers to repair and regenerate muscle tissue. A. True B. False ✔ B. False Primary intention tissue healing occurs in surgical scars where the tissue is sutured together. A. True B. False ✔ A. True Which of the following occurs when a multi-joint muscle actively contracts to its shortest position, but the joints it cross stil have available motion? A. Active insufficieny B. Passive insufficiency C. Physiological Advantage D. Physiological Strength ✔ A. Active Insufficiency Matching. Force Applied parallel to the treatmen plane. A. Arthrokinematics B. Close pack position C. Glide D. Osteokinematics E. Resting Position AB. Traction ✔ C. Glide Matching. Movement of one bone in relation to another bone. A. Arthrokinematics B. Close pack position C. Glide D. Osteokinematics E. Resting Position AB. Traction ✔ D. Osteokinematics

The ___ is responsible for emotion and memory serving as the link between psychological and physiological. ✔ Limbic System The ICF Model was developed by what organization? ✔ World Health Organization Your tennis athlete is having difficult regaining the final 5 degrees of elbow extension so you have decided to utilize joint mobilizations to improve the arthokinematics of the humeroradial articulation. If you are going to glide the radius on a stable humerus to increase elbow extension, in what direction would you apply the joint glide? ✔ Posterior Describe 3 ways we can apply the concepts of physics to make the body less stable during a rehab exercise. ✔ When performing the focused stretch during a myofascial release treatment, there are 4 treatment levels thata can be applied. List each of the four levels. ✔ No tension Tension Passive Motion Active Motion What differentiate an active trigger point from a latent trigger point? ✔ Active trigger point can refer p! With or without palpation. Latent trigger point only refer pain when palpate. Define Newtons First Law of Motion and provide one example of how it is relevant to rehab. ✔ List 3 proposed benefit of Instrument Assisted Soft Tissue Mobilization ✔ Breaks up adhesions Increases mobility by increasing elasticity in the tissue caused by adhesions Less time Cheap Mechanical Advantage on clinician List and describe the 3 normal joint end feels described to Cyriax. ✔ Bone to bone-end feel Tissue approximation -soft end feel Capsular -leathery end feel

List and briefly describe each of the 3 dimensions of the DImensional Model of Manual Therapy. ✔ Tissue Dimension -how tissue reacts (muscle fascia) Neurological Dimension- Manual sensory gating. Gate control therory Psychological Dimension- our state affects our muscle tone than having these manual therapy can be helpful for that component What are the three components of Evidence Based Practice? ✔ Best Available evidence Patient Values Clinical Expertise We discussed 7 essential principles or guidelines that should be followed when developing a rehab protocol for a patient. List and describe the 7 principles, explaining. Why each is important to consider in the development of your rehab plan. HINT; ATCISIT ✔ A-Avoid Aggravation T- Timing C- Compliance I- Individual S- Specific Sequencing I-Intensity T- total patient Secondary Intention ✔ Larger areas fills in from sides and bottoms. Sprains. Define Flexibility ✔ It's the musculotendious units ability Define ROM ✔ Is motion of the joint Pain right around calcaneous and middle aspect of Achilles Tendon ✔ Soleus Pain at the temple behind the ear by occipitals ✔ Upper Trapezius Define SORT grades A, B, C ✔ Grade A: Consitent and good quality patient oriented evidence. Consistent level 1 studies Grade B: Inconsitst or limited quality patient orientated evidence consistent level 2 or 3 studies

Which of the following organizations certifies football helmets to make sure they are able to withstand repeated blows of high mass and low velocity? A. NSA B. NFL C. FDA D. NOCSAE E. NATA ✔ D. NOCSAE _____________ states that muscle strength, power endurance, and hypertrophy increases only when muscles perform workloads greater than those loads previously encountered. A. The DAPRE Principle B. The Power Training Principle C. Strength-Duration Curve D. PRE Principle E. Overload Principle ✔ E. Overload Principle All of the following functions contribute to the athletes ability to maintain a steady state during periods of increased metabolic needs while exercising except: A. Pulmonary diffusion B. Vascular adaptation C. Physical condition of the involved muscles D. A high-protein event meal E. A and C ✔ D. A high-protein event meal One of your basketball players comes into the athletic training facility insisting that his ankles need to be taped even though he has no known injury. The athlete should be advised of which of the following: A. To let the athletic trainer know if he starts developing any knee problems. B. An elastic of neoprene ankle brace is more effective than taping in preventing an injury C. For ankle tape to be effective, the athletes should rely on ankle-strengthening exercises rather than prophylactic taping if there is no injury present. D. Advise the athlete to contact his family physician to evaluate his ankles. E. None of the above. ✔ C. For ankle tape to be effective, the athletes should rely on ankle-strengthening exercises rather than prophylactic taping if there is no injury present. To prevent a hazardous electrical problem in the athletic training facility, _________ and ___________ should never be used. A. Multiple adapters, extension cords B. Hanging lights, 3-pronged wall outlets

C. Equipment with electrical cords, equipment that conforms to National Electrical Code guidelines D. Ground fault interrupters, 3-pronged wall outlets E. Ground fault interrupters, fluorescent lights ✔ A. Multiple adapters, extension cords A Q-angle of >25 degrees may predispose a patient to what postural deviation? A. Genu Recurvatum B. Excessive genu varus C. Excessive genu valgus D. Coxa vara E. Coxa valgus ✔ C. Excessive genu valgus The NATA's position statement on exertional heat illness recommends which of the following? A. Ensure that appropriate medical care is available and the rescue personnel are familiar with exertional heat illness prevention, recognition, and treatment. B. Plan rest breaks to match environmental conditions and the intensity of the activity. C. Weigh high-risk athletes (in high-risk conditions, weigh all athletes) before and after practice to estimate the amount of body water lost during practice and to ensure a return to prepractice weight before next practice. D. Allow athletes to practice in shaded areas or use electric or cooling fans to circulate air when feasible. E. All of the above ✔ E. All of the above Which of the following is not recommended for the prevention of heat-related illnesses? A. Check the humidity and temperature daily B. Drink 20oz. of water every 15 minutes C. Weal layers of lightweight clothing D. Acclimate E. All of the above ✔ C. Weal layers of lightweight clothing Shoulder pads provide protection for which type of injury? A. Rotator cuff tendinitis B. Impingement C. Acromioclavicular joint sprain D. Brachial Plexus injuries E. Glenohumeral joint separation ✔ C. Acromioclavicular joint sprain Which type of stretching is not recommended because of the potential for causing muscle soreness and possible injury when done over a period of time? A. Ballistic

B. External rotation with flexion and adduction to internal rotation with flexion and abduction C. External rotation with adduction and flexion to internal rotation with abduction and flexion D. External rotation with abduction an extension to internal rotation with adduction and flexion E. None of the above ✔ A. External rotation with flexion and abduction to internal rotation with extension and adduction Which of the steps below are correct when fitting a football helmet? I. Press straight down on the crown of the helmet to see if the pressure is at the crown of the head II. Check to see if the jaw pads fit snugly against the jaw III. Check to make sure the helmet sits 3-finger breadths above the eyebrows. IV. Check the chin strap adjustment for a tight fit. V. Try to turn the helmet side-to-side with the head in stationary position VI. Place the helmet over the head, tilt it backward, and rotate it forward into position ✔ I. Press straight down on the crown of the helmet to see if the pressure is at the crown of the head II. Check to see if the jaw pads fit snugly against the jaw IV. Check the chin strap adjustment for a tight fit. V. Try to turn the helmet side-to-side with the head in stationary position VI. Place the helmet over the head, tilt it backward, and rotate it forward into position All of the following are signs and symptoms of dehydration except: A. High specific gravity of urine B. Weight loss C. Thirst D. Seizure E. Sunken, soft eyes ✔ D. Seizure The NATA's position statement on the prevention of pediatric overuse injuries suggests a pediatric athlete should have at least ____ per week from competitive practices, competitions, and sports-specific training. A. 3-5 days off B. .5-1 full day off C. 2-3 days off D. 1-2 days off E. 3 days off ✔ D. 1-2 days off A patient who ignores his or her diagnosis of cardiac hypertrophy and continues to exercise at an intense level risks which of the following? A. Pulmonary hypertension

B. Aortic rupture C. A fatal cardiac event D. Stroke E. Commotio Cordis ✔ C. A fatal cardiac event A patient presents to you with a suspected shoulder dislocation. What should you do? A. Immediately immobilize the joint and refer the patient to the team physician B. Check the neurovascular status of the upper extremity, including dermatomes and myotomes C. Tell the patient to sit and wait until you have time to deal with it D. Evaluate the shoulder motion and send the patient to the hospital E. Evaluate the injury then reduce the dislocation as soon as possible. ✔ B. Check the neurovascular status of the upper extremity, including dermatomes and myotomes Screening for Marfan syndrome includes musculoskeletal and eye exams. Which of the following tests is also part of the screening process? A. Pulmonary function test B. Echocardiogram C. Urinalysis D. Electrocardiogram E. Complete blood count ✔ B. Echocardiogram Under which of the following environmental conditions would an undiagnosed patient with sickle-cell trait be most at risk? A. Hot, humid environments B. Cold, dry environment C. High-altitude environment D. Cold, humid environment E. A and C ✔ E. A and C Sixty-five percent of the heat produced by the body during exercise is lost through what? A. Convection B. Conduction C. Evaporation D. Radiation E. None of the above ✔ C. Evaporation The NATA's position statement on the management of the athlete with type 1 diabetes recommends that each athlete with diabetes have a diabetes care plan. The plan should include all of the following except:

E. Isometric ✔ B. Isokinetic When monitoring a carbohydrate-loading program for an endurance athlete, what should the athlete do the day prior to competition? A. Eat a low-carbohydrate meal and participate in a regular amount of exercise B. Eat a high-carbohydrate meal and participate in a regular amount of exercise C. Hyperhydrate and rest the day before competition D. Eat a low-protein diet and participate in a regular amount of exercise E. Eat a high-carbohydrate meal and perform little to no exercise ✔ E. Eat a high-carbohydrate meal and perform little to no exercise All of the following symptoms are considered "red flags," requiring urgent referral to a physician, except: A. Hunger B. Persistent headaches C. Malaise, fatigue D. Insomnia E. Constant pain ✔ A. Hunger All of the following are ways of reducing risk on injury except: A. Assess activity areas for safety B. Frequent handwashing C. Proper equipment maintenance D. Documentation of treatments E. All of the above ✔ B. Frequent handwashing To prevent the possibility of an acute compartment syndrome, the athletic trainer should advise his or her field hockey players to wear which of the following pieces of equipment? A. Helmets B. Gloves C. Thigh pads D. Mouthguards E. Shin guards ✔ E. Shin guards Under what condition(s) is a patient likely to experience a stress fracture of a bone? A. After a few high loads or many small loads are applied to the bone B. After a large traumatic insult to the bone C. After a traumatic incident that is quickly followed by a few small loads to the bone D. After 1 or 2 small loads are applied to the bone E. None of the above

✔ A. After a few high loads or many small loads are applied to the bone

  1. A flak jacket is a piece of equipment designed to protect the athlete after what type of injury? A. Rib injury B. Abdominal injury C. Hip pointer injury D. Clavicle injury E. Scapular injury ✔ A. Rib injury According to the American College of Sports Medicine, when performing flexibility exercises, how long should a stretch be held for optimal results? A. A minimum of 1.5 to 2 minutes B. 5-10 seconds; after 10 seconds, minimal/no results are achieved C. 60-90 seconds; until the athlete feels some mild discomfort D. 45-60 seconds; no less than 45 seconds E. 10-30 seconds; only as long as it feels comfortable ✔ E. 10-30 seconds; only as long as it feels comfortable Athletes can prevent lower leg injuries by all of the following except: A. Stretching B. Proper footwear C. Proprioceptive training D. Strength training E. All of the above prevent lower leg injuries ✔ E. All of the above prevent lower leg injuries In hot, wet environments, the patient's ability to adjust to a significantly increased cardiovascular workload is limited by which factor? A. Dehydration B. Hypernatremia C. Inability to dissipate heat by evaporation D. Hypervolemia E. Hypoxia ✔ C. Inability to dissipate heat by evaporation When is maximum protection provided by a properly fitted mouth guard? A. When it contains titanium fibers B. When it is made of a flexible, resilient material and is form fitted to the teeth and upper jaw C. When it is certified by the National Collegiate Athletic Association D. When it is certified by the National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment E. When it is made of a rigid, plastic material that is fitted to both the upper and lower jaw.