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A practice exam for advanced trauma life support (atls), covering key concepts and procedures in trauma care. It includes multiple-choice questions and answers related to the initial assessment, resuscitation, and management of trauma patients. Topics covered range from airway management and shock treatment to burn care and spinal injury assessment. This resource is designed to help medical professionals prepare for atls certification or to review essential trauma management principles, enhancing their ability to provide effective care in emergency situations. It offers practical insights into critical decision-making and treatment strategies, making it a valuable tool for both learning and reference. The questions address various clinical scenarios, promoting a deeper understanding of atls guidelines and best practices in trauma care.
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What treatment is NOT indicated in the routine management of the patient with a head injury? A. Administration of 100% oxygen B. Fluid resuscitation to a BP of 110-120 systolic if the patient is hypotensive C. Hyperventilating to obtain an EtCO2 of less than 30 D. Stabilization of the cervical spine - C. Hyperventilating to obtain an EtCO2 of less than 30 Which of the following sets of vital signs is most compatible with a diagnosis of isolated head injury with increasing intracranial pressure? A. BP 170/100, pulse 50/min B. BP 80/60, pulse 130/min C. BP 80/60, pulse 50/min D. BP 170/100, pulse 130/min - A. BP 170/100, pulse 50/min Which one of the following is a reason to interrupt the initial assessment? A. Cardiac arrest B. Multiple open (compound) fractures C. Severe head injury with brain tissue visible D. Severe shock - A. Cardiac arrest What site is the first choice for intraosseous infusion? A. Proximal tibia B. Distal humerus C. Proximal femur D. Distal fibula - A. Proximal tibia A 34 year old man has a gunshot wound to the right groin area. Arterial bleeding, which cannot be controlled with direct pressure, is coming from the wound. The patient appears confused, diaphoretic, and has weak peripheral pulses. What is the appropriate fluid resuscitation for this patient? A. Intravenous fluid at a "keep open" rate B. Apply a hemostatic agent and gain intravenous access given enough fluid to maintain peripheral pulses C. Intravenous fluid at a wide open rate; give at least two liters, then reassess
patient D. No intravenous access should be established in this situation - B. Apply a hemostatic agent and gain intravenous access given enough fluid to maintain peripheral pulses Which one of the following is typically associated with, post-traumatic hemorrhage, EARLY shock? A. Ventricular dysrhythmias
B. Cardiac tamponade C. Hemorrhagic shock D. Spinal injury - C. Hemorrhagic shock Which of the following is most typical of early, neurogenic shock? A. Increased pulse, clammy skin B. Increased pulse, warm and dry skin C. Decreased pulse, clammy skin D. Decreased pulse, warm and dry skin - D. Decreased pulse, warm and dry skin (skin is warm due to vasodilation) Which of the following is an acceptable location to insert a needle when decompressing a tension pneumothorax? A. Directly under the bottom of the second rib, midclavicular line B. Directly under the bottom of the third rib, midclavicular line C. Directly over the top of the fourth rib, midaxillary line D. Directly over the top of the third rib, midclavicular line - D. Directly over the top of the third rib, midclavicular line What is the most common cause of cardiopulmonary arrest in the trauma patient? A. Brain injury B. Hypoxemia C. Myocardial contusion D. Ventricular arrhythmia - B. Hypoxemia A 49 year old man is involved in a motor vehicle collision. First responders are doing CPR. Findings include a distended abdomen and obviously deformed pelvis and a quick look at the monitor shows asystole. Which of the following is the most appropriate act? A. Establish intravenous access and administer a 20mL/kg bolus B. Establish intravenous access and administer a 1 liter bolus C. Establish intravenous access and administer a 2-4 liter bolus D. Resuscitative efforts should not be started and the patient pronounced dead - D. Resuscitative efforts should not be started and the patient pronounced dead Which of the following statements concerning treatment of shock in the pregnant, burn patient is TRUE? A. Oxygen should be used sparingly so as to avoid oxygen toxicity to the fetus B. Pressor agents such as dopamine should be used to improve circulation to the fetus C. Volume replacement should be given earlier and in larger amounts to the pregnant, burn patient D. Volume replacement should be given more slowly so as to avoid fluid overloading the fetus - C. Volume replacement should be given earlier and in larger amounts to the pregnant, burn patient
Which area of the spine is most susceptible to injury in a rear-impact motor vehicle crash? A. Cervical B. Thoracic C. Lumbar D. Sacral-coccygeal - A. Cervical Definitive control of the airway is achieved by - Endotracheal
What type of burns appear wet and blistered? - Partial thickness burns (second degree) How do you treat CO exposed pt? - 100% oxygen flow through non re-breather mask What is a reliable measure of circulating blood volumes in burn patients? - Hourly urine output Goal= 0.5-1.0 ml/kg body weight Hospital admission criteria for burn pt (8) - 1) Partial-thickness burns greater than 10% total BSA (TBSA)
D. Posteriorly directed pressure applied to the cricoid cartilage - D. Posteriorly directed pressure applied to the cricoid cartilage A 16 year old girl is rescued from a burning house. She has 25% partial thickness burns, and the burned areas are hot to the touch. What is the appropriate treatment? A. Apply ice to burned areas until cool to touch B. Apply clean water to burned areas for up to 1-2 minutes
D. Narrowed pulse pressure - D. Narrowed pulse pressure Among the following, what is the most common cause of preventable trauma death in the injured adult patient? A. Airway obstruction
B. Cardiac tamponade C. Hemorrhagic shock D. Spinal injury - C. Hemorrhagic shock Which of the following is most typical of early, neurogenic shock? A. Increased pulse, clammy skin B. Increased pulse, warm and dry skin C. Decreased pulse, clammy skin D. Decreased pulse, warm and dry skin - D. Decreased pulse, warm and dry skin (skin is warm due to vasodilation) Which of the following is an acceptable location to insert a needle when decompressing a tension pneumothorax? A. Directly under the bottom of the second rib, midclavicular line B. Directly under the bottom of the third rib, midclavicular line C. Directly over the top of the fourth rib, midaxillary line D. Directly over the top of the third rib, midclavicular line - D. Directly over the top of the third rib, midclavicular line What is the most common cause of cardiopulmonary arrest in the trauma patient? A. Brain injury B. Hypoxemia C. Myocardial contusion D. Ventricular arrhythmia - B. Hypoxemia A 49 year old man is involved in a motor vehicle collision. First responders are doing CPR. Findings include a distended abdomen and obviously deformed pelvis and a quick look at the monitor shows asystole. Which of the following is the most appropriate act? A. Establish intravenous access and administer a 20mL/kg bolus B. Establish intravenous access and administer a 1 liter bolus C. Establish intravenous access and administer a 2-4 liter bolus D. Resuscitative efforts should not be started and the patient pronounced dead - D. Resuscitative efforts should not be started and the patient pronounced dead Which of the following statements concerning treatment of shock in the pregnant, burn patient is TRUE? A. Oxygen should be used sparingly so as to avoid oxygen toxicity to the fetus B. Pressor agents such as dopamine should be used to improve circulation to the fetus C. Volume replacement should be given earlier and in larger amounts to the pregnant, burn patient D. Volume replacement should be given more slowly so as to avoid fluid overloading the fetus - C. Volume replacement should be given earlier and in larger amounts to the pregnant, burn patient
A 23 year old female has won the "Let's-see-who-can-lean-the-farthest-backward- over- the-second-story-balcony-railing contest. You arrive to find her boyfriend standing over her, holding two beers, as she lies on the grass under the balcony. She opens her eyes to voice, her skin is cool, clammy and ashen, respirations are rapid and shallow, radial pulses are too rapid to count and thready. There is no external bleeding. She has flat neck veins, a normal chest and abdomen and pelvis. Her boyfriend tells you that she has some kind of heart problem but he doesn't know what. Placed on the monitor, she shows a wide-complex tachycardia of about 280. What kind of shock is she suffering? A. Hypovolemic shock B. Relative hypovolemic (high-space) shock C. Mechanical (obstructive) shock D. Cardiogenic shock - D. Cardiogenic shock Which of the following would be the most compelling reason to intubate a patient immediately? A. Snoring respirations B. Gurgling respirations C. Inability to ventilate (achieve chest rise) D. Traumatic arrest - C. Inability to ventilate (achieve chest rise) Which of the following may affect the reliability of a pulse oxymetry reading? A. Cyanide poisoning B. High ambient light C. Carbon monoxide poisoning D. All of the above - D. All of the above Which of the following conditions is your FIRST priority in management of a trauma patient? A. Open the airway and assess for breathing B. Provide ventilator support for your patient C. Control major external bleeding D. Begin chest compressions if pulses are absent - C. Control major external bleeding Not sure why this is the answer since we were taught Airway is first but okay... In the absence of herniation syndrome, adult head injured patients should be: A. ventilated at a rate of 8-10 per minute B. ventilated at a rate of 12-14 per minute C. ventilated at a rate of 16-18 per minute D. ventilated at a rate of 20 per minute - A. ventilated at a rate of 8-10 per minute Tourniquet application should be limited to less than: A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 3 hours
D. 4 hours - B. 2 hours Hemostatic agents applied directly to the source of bleeding must be used in conjunction with: A. direct pressure to the wound B. tourniquets proximal to the wound
C. Reflexes D. Sensory exam - B. Level of consciousness Weakness, fast pulse, and normal blood pressure suggest what condition? A. Compensated hypovolemic shock
B. Decompensated neurogenic shock C. Late burn shock D. Late hemorrhagic shock - A. Compensated hypovolemic shock Which one of the following mnemonics can be used to help predict which patients might potentially have difficult bag mask ventilation? A. MMAP B. IPPV C. RSI D. BOOTS - D. BOOTS B=Beard O=Obese O=Old age T=Toothless S=Snoring A 23 year old female has won the "Let's-see-who-can-lean-the-farthest-backward- over- the-second-story-balcony-railing" contest. You arrive to find her boyfriend standing over her, holding two beers, as she lies on the grass under the balcony. She opens her eyes to voice, her skin is normal in color, respirations about 16 and unlabored, pulse 54 and a little weak at the wrist, with no external bleeding. She has flat neck veins, a normal chest and abdomen and a stable pelvis. First responders who arrived just before you, tell you that her pulse ox reading is 94 and her blood pressure is 74/30. What type of shock is present? A. Hypovolemic shock B. Relative hypovolemic (high-space) shock C. Mechanical (obstructive) shock D. Cardiogenic shock - B. Relative hypovolemic (high-space) shock As intracerebral pressure rises, after an isolated head injury, what does the systolic blood pressure do? A. Stays the same B. Decreases C. Increases D. Changes randomly - C. Increases