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CH1. 1 - Which of the following statements is true concerning the usage of SNT-TC-1A? - ANSD. SNT-TC-1A is not intended to be used as a strict specification CH1. 2 - The SNT-TC-1A Interpretation Panel will respond to inquiries about SNT-TC-1A. The inquiry muct be: - ANSA. written and stated in general terms CH1. 3 - Which of the following statements is true? - ANSB. SNT-TC-1A was first published in the late 1960s CH1. 4 - With regard to the training of NDT personnel, the employer: - ANSD. may engage an outside service but is, nevertheless, responsible for the certification of the company's NDT personnel CH1. 5 - SNT-TC-1A is intended as a guideline for employers: - ANSB. to establish their own written practice for the qualification and certification of their NDT personnel CH1. 6 - The following is a statement in SNT-TC-1A: "It is recognized that these guidelines may not be appropriate for certain employers, circumstances, and/or applications." What should be done if the guidelines are not appropriate? - ANSC. The employer should review the detailed recommendations and modify them, as necessary, to meet its particular needs CH1. 7 - Which of the following statements is not true? - ANSD. A certifying agency is any organization used by an employer in training NDT personnel CH1. 8 - Who should be responsible to asses whether or not an individual should be qualified and certified who does not perform NDT, but monitors and evaluates NDT? - ANSB. The individual's employer CH1. 9 - To which of the following NDT methods is SNT-TC-1A currently not applicable? - ANSD. Holographic testing CH1. 10 - ASNT intended that the recommendations of SNT-TC-1A be applied: - ANSa. with flexibility and reason CH1. 11 - Of the following, which is most appropriate to determine the needs to qualify and certify personnel whose only NDT function is to operate digital thickness equipment? - ANSc. The employer CH1. 12 - Certification is: - ANSb. written testimony of qualification CH1. 13 - Use of SNT-TC-1A is mandatory when: - ANSc. it has been specified by the customer CH1. 14 - The basic levels of qualification recommended by SNT-TC-1A are: - ANSc. Level I, Level II, and Level III CH1. 15 - Should personnel that operate ultrasonic digital thickness measurement equipment be qualified and certified? - ANSd. Whether any NDT personnel should be qualified and certified depends solely upon the needs of the employer and the requirements of the employer's customers or clientele CH1. 16 - According to the recommendations of SNT-TC-1A, which of the following is true concerning a Trainee's activities? - ANSa. The Trainee may not conduct nondestructive tests independently and may not report test results CH1. 17 - According to SNT-TC-1A, which of the following is not true for a Level III? - ANSb. Must train and examine the Level I and II personnel in his or her organization CH1. 18 - According to written instructions, an NDT Level I may be qualified to perform: - ANSd. all of the above, and record test results
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CH1. 19 - May a Level I independently perform, evaluate, and sign for results of nondestructive tests with supervision and guidance from a Level II or III? - ANSa. Yes, the intent in SNT-TC-1A is that the Level I may perform the above functions provided that they are in accordance with written instructions of a Level II or III CH1. 20 - Which of the following statements is true concerning the definitions of Trainee, Level I, II and III in SNT-TC-1A? - ANSa. The qualifications for Level III equal and exceed those of Level II CH1. 21 - Which of the following is not within the scope of activities of a Level II individual, as recommended in SNT-TC-1A? - ANSc. Establish techniques CH1. 22 - As recommended in SNT-TC-1A, a Level II: - ANSd. may conduct on-the-job training and guidance of Level I personnel CH1. 23 - According to SNT-TC-1A, which of the following is true for a Level III? - ANSd. The Level III shall be capable of evaluating test results in terms of codes, standards, and specifications CH1. 24 - In accordance with SNT-TC-1A, who is responsible for establishing a written practice for the control and administration of NDT personnel training, examination, and certification? - ANSb. The employer CH1. 25 - The responsibility of each level of certification for determining the acceptability of materials or components: - ANSc. should be described in the employer's written practice under all circumstances CH1. 26 - What factors are to be considered to ensure that a candidate for certification in NDT understands the principles and procedures involved? - ANSa. Training, experience, and education CH1. 27 - As recommended in SNT-TC-1A, which of the following is true? - ANSd. SNT- TC-1A does not currently provide a recommendation regarding overtime CH1. 28 - High school education is recommended as a minimum requirement for: - ANSc. none of the levels CH1. 29 - In Leak Testing, recommended work time experience and training: - ANSa. differs for each of four major techniques CH1. 30 - It is recommended that the education and experience of a Level III candidate include: - ANSa. graduation from a 4-year university or college with a degree in engineering or science plus 1 year's experience in NDT comparable to that of a Level II CH1. 31 - Records substantiating training and experience for qualification are recommended to be kept on a(n): - ANSb. hourly basis CH1. 32 - For a person being qualified directly to Level II with no time at Level I, the recommended experience consists of: - ANSc. the sum of the times recommended for Level I and Level II CH1. 33 - In some cases, the training times recommended for Level I are greater than for Level II. Why? - ANSd. Some methods require more initial training at Level I because of the differences in complexity and manipulative skills CH1. 34 - The recommended number of training hours in a particular method are: - ANSb. the same regardless of the candidate's education
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CH1. 53 - If an outside agency is engaged to provide Level III services, the: - ANSb. responsibility of certification must be retained by the employer utilizing outside services CH1. 54 - What purpose is best served by maintaining certification records and the written practice? - ANSc. To provide documentation for review by customer, clients, and regulatory agencies CH1. 55 - The employer is responsible for certification of: - ANSd. all levels of NDT personnel CH1. 56 - The employer can consider an individual to be qualified to Level III, but only if he or she: - ANSc. meets the requirements of the employer's written practice CH1. 57 - Which of the following statements is true concerning recertification? - ANSb. Recertification can be based upon evidence of continuing satisfactory performance CH1. 58 - Automatic termination of certification is recommended when the certified individual: - ANSa. terminates employment with the employer where certified CH1. 59 - A certified Level III individual terminates his or her employment with employer A and is immediately employed by employer B. Employer B may certify the individual as Level III based upon which of the following? - ANSa. The employer must examine the individual CH2. 1 - In accordance with CP-189 (2016), an NDT Level III: - ANSc. must approve all questions to be used on examinations for Level I and Level II CH2. 2 - Which of the following is true regarding NDT Level III Practical Examinations? - ANSb. the exam administrator must hold a valid ASNT Level III certification in the applicable test method CH2. 3 - When the near-distance vision acuity examination is given using a jaeger reading card, it must be given: - ANSa. in accordance with a procedure CH2. 4 - As required in CP-189, Level I Practical examinations are intended to be: - ANSc. given using one or more test samples for each technique CH2. 5 - The Practical Examination shall address the technical and practical competency of the examinee when following prepared NDT procedures for: - ANSd. Levels I and II CH3. 1 - ASNT NDT Level III certification is a requirement of: - ANSb. CP- 189 CH3. 2 - A currently valid ASNT NDT Level III certificate indicates: - ANSd. that the certificate holder has satisfied the Basic and Method exam requirements as set forth in SNT- TC-1A CH3. 3 - ASNT NDT Level III certification: - ANSc. makes an individual potentially eligible to become an employer's Level III CH3. 4 - The ASNT NDT Level III Basic Examination covers all of the following except: - ANSd. knowledge of international certification programs CH3. 5 - To recertify by application, an ADNT NDT Level III must: - ANSa. demonstrate continued NDT activity and Level III employment CH3. 6 - To be eligible to sit for the ASNT NDT Level III exams, a candidate with two years of passing grades in engineering or science study at a university or technical school must have: - ANSb. two additional years of experience beyond the Level II requirements in NDT in an assignment at least comparable to that of NDT Level II in the applicable NDT method(s) CH4 (AE). 1 - The most common range of acoustic emission testing is: - ANSb. 100-300 kHz
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CH4 (AE). 2 - Discontinuities that are not readily detectable by acoustic emission testing are:
- ANSd. rounded inclusions CH4 (AE). 3 - The total energy loss of a propagating wave is called: - ANSd. attenuation CH4 (AE). 4 - The kaiser effect refers to: - ANSc. the behavior where emission from a source will not occur until the previous load is exceeded CH4 (AE). 5 - The felicity effect is useful in evaluating: - ANSa. fiber-reinforced plastic components CH4 (AE). 6 - The kaiser effect is useful in distinguishing: - ANSc. mechanical noise from growing discontinuities CH4 (AE). 7 - The term "counts" refers to the: - ANSa. number of times a signal crosses a preset threshold CH4 (AE). 8 - The acoustic emission signal amplitude is related to: - ANSb. the intensity of the source CH4 (AE). 9 - Threshold settings are determined by the: - ANSd. background noise level CH4 (AE). 10 - Background noise can be reduced by: - ANSa. electronic filtering CH4 (ET). 1 - Eddy currents are circulating electrical currents induced in conductive materials by: - ANSc. an altering magnetic field CH4 (ET). 2 - The method used to generate eddy currents in a test specimen by means of a coil can most closely be compared with the action of a: - ANSa. transformer CH4 (ET). 3 - Electromagnetic testing relies on the principle of: - ANSb. electromagnetic induction CH4 (ET). 4 - When the electrical current in an eddy current coil reverses direction, the: - ANSc. direction of the eddy currents in the test part also reverses CH4 (ET). 5 - In order to generate measurable eddy currents in a test specimen, the specimen must be: - ANSa. an electrical conductor CH4 (ET). 6 - The magnetic field generated by eddy currents induced in a test specimen: - ANSc. opposes the magnetic field that induced the eddy currents CH4 (ET). 7 - In electromagnetic testing, IACS is a recognized abbreviation for: - ANSd. International Annealed Copper Standard CH4 (ET). 8 - In electromagnetic testing, the specimen is coupled to the test coil by: - ANSc. the coil's electromagnetic fields CH4 (ET). 9 - The penetration of eddy currents in a conductive material is decreased when the: - ANSc. test frequency, conductivity of the specimen, or permeability of the specimen is increased CH4 (ET). 10 - At a fixed test frequency, in which of the following materials will the eddy current penetration be greatest? - ANSd. Lead (7% IACS conductivity) CH4 (ET). 11 - A term used to describe the effect observed due to a change in the coupling between a test specimen and a flat probe coil when the distance of separation between them is varied is: - ANSd. liftoff CH4 (ET). 12 - When testing with eddy currents, discontinuities will be most easily detected when the eddy currents are: - ANSb. perpendicular to the major plane of the discontinuity CH4 (ET). 13 - Which of the following discontinuities is easiest to detect with an electromagnetic test? (Assume that the area of the discontinuity is equal in all four choices
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CH4 (LT). 6 - Which of the following best describes the type of leak test used when the interior of the test object is evacuated and a tracer gas is applied to the exterior, while the leak detector is connected to the evacuating system? - ANSd. Dynamic leak test CH4 (LT). 7 - Assuming no significant leakage, if the temperature increases, during a pressure drop leak test, the pressure in the system under test would: - ANSa. increase CH4 (LT). 8 - If the sensitivity of the halogen leak detector is constant throughout a test, which of the following is true upon completion of the test? - ANSc. The instrument and the test procedure were capable of detecting leakage of a certain size during the test CH4 (LT). 9 - All leak detection techniques are dependent upon: - ANSb. gas or fluid flow CH4 (LT). 10 - In an evacuated system, sensitivity of a pressure change leak test is dependent not only on the pressure change observed, but also on the degree of outgassing. Outgassing is best defined as: - ANSa. the release of gas from materials in a vacuum CH4 (PT). 1 - The tendency of a liquid penetrant to enter a discontinuity is primarily related to: - ANSb. capillary forces CH4 (PT). 2 - Liquid penetrant testing is a nondestructive method that can be used for: - ANSd. locating discontinuities open to the surface CH4 (PT). 3 - Which of the following is not a characteristic that applies to liquid penetrant testing? - ANSa. This method can accurately measure the depth of a crack or discontinuity CH4 (PT). 4 - The property of a dye used in penetrant materials to emit light in the range of wavelengths different from the wavelength of light that excites the emission is called: - ANSd. fluorescence CH4 (PT). 5 - When using a fluorescent, post-emulsifier penetrant, the length of time the emulsifier is allowed to remain on the part is critical for detecting shallow discontinuities. The optimum length of time should be: - ANSd. determined by experimentation CH4 (PT). 6 - A red penetrant indication against white background is most likely to be seen when: - ANSb. visible dye penetrants are used CH4 (PT). 7 - The most widely accepted method for removing excessive water-washable penetrant from the surface of a test specimen is by: - ANSb. using a water spray rinse CH4 (PT). 8 - Which of the following penetrant systems is generally considered the least sensitive? - ANSa. Water-washable; visible dye CH4 (PT). 9 - When performing a liquid penetrant test using solvent-removable visible dye penetrant, there are several ways to remove excess penetrant from the surface of the part. Which of the methods listed below is generally regarded as most suitable for giving accurate test results? - ANSd. Wiping with dry wipes, then wiping with a solvent-dampened cloth, and finally wiping with a dry cloth CH4 (PT). 10 - A problem with retesting a specimen that has been previously tested using liquid penetrant is that the: - ANSa. penetrant residue left is discontinuities may not readily dissolve, and the retest may be misleading CH4 (PT). 11 - A commonly used method of checking the overall performance of a penetrant material system is to: - ANSc. compare two sections of artificially cracked specimens CH4 (PT). 12 - The function of emulsifier in the post-emulsified penetrant process is to: - ANSb. react with the surface penetrant to make the penetrant water-washable
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CH4 (PT). 13 - Which of the following statements does not apply to developers used during penetrant testing? - ANSa. Developers are normally highly fluorescent CH4 (PT). 14 - The penetrant indication for a cold shut on the surface of a casting will normally be: - ANSc. a smooth continuous line CH4 (PT). 15 - A crack-type discontinuity will generally appear as: - ANSb. a continuous line, either straight or jagged CH4 (PT). 16 - In a penetrant test, scattered round indications of the surface of a part could be indicative of: - ANSb. porosity CH4 (PT). 17 - Which of the following are typical nonrelevant indications found in penetrant testing? - ANSa. Indications due to part geometry or part design configurations CH4 (PT). 18 - Which of the statements below best states the results of sandblasting for cleaning surfaces to be penetrant tested? - ANSa. Discontinuities may be closed CH4 (PT). 19 - The penetrant indication of a forging lap will normally be a: - ANSc. thin continuous line CH4 (PT). 20 - Aluminum alloy test specimens that have been tested by the liquid penetrant method should be thoroughly cleaned after testing because: - ANSd. the alkalines in wet developers and most emulsifiers could cause surface pitting, particularly in moist atmoshperes CH4 (PT). 21 - Which of the following statements is true when using penetrants for leak detection? - ANSc. Penetrant can be diluted in water for hydro testing CH4 (PT). 22 - Which of the following is a discontinuity that might be found in rolled bar stock? - ANSc. Cracks or seams CH4 (PT). 23 - Anodized surfaces are usually considered poor candidates for high-sensitivity liquid penetrant examination because the anodizing process produces a conversion layer that:
- ANSb. has a multitude of extremely small pores CH4 (PT). 24 - Which of the following penetrant methods does not normally require a source of electricity to properly conduct a test? - ANSc. Visible dye penetrant method CH4 (PT). 25 - Which of the following statements is true concerning penetrant testing of welds with rough surfaces? - ANSd. Welds with rough surfaces may need to be ground smooth prior to penetrant testing CH4 (MT). 1 - Which of the following materials cannot be tested by magnetic particle techniques? - ANSa. Copper alloys CH4 (MT). 2 - Materials that are strongly attracted to a magnet are called: - ANSc. ferromagnetic CH4 (MT). 3 - Magnetic lines of force (magnetic fields) are oriented in what direction in relation to the direction of the magnetizing current? - ANSb. At right angles CH4 (MT). 4 - Magnetizing flux is a term that relates to: - ANSc. the lines of force associated with a magnetic field CH4 (MT). 5 - Subjecting a part to a magnetic field that is constantly reversing in polarity and gradually diminishing in strength accomplishes which of the following? - ANSa. Demagnetizes the part CH4 (MT). 6 - Circular magnetization is useful in the detection of: - ANSb. longitudinal cracks
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CH4 (NR). 5 - A normally desirable feature of a thermal neutron beam for neutron radiography is: - ANSb. relatively low fast-neutron intensity CH4 (NR). 6 - Material that slows down neutrons is called: - ANSa. a moderator CH4 (NR). 7 - The primary radiation mechanism for darkening radiographic film when the direct neutron radiography process is used with gadolinium screens is: - ANSb. electrons CH4 (NR). 8 - Neutron radiography using the transfer method requires that the imaging screen must: - ANSd. become radioactive CH4 (NR). 9 - Which of the following neutron radiography converter foils cannot be used for transfer or indirect radiography? - ANSc. Gadolinium CH4 (NR). 10 - The most suitable films for producing neutron radiographs are: - ANSa. industrial X-ray films CH4 (NR). 11 - Materials that are exposed to thermal neutron beams: - ANSd. may be radioactive after exposure to neutrons has ceased CH4 (NR). 12 - Lead is: - ANSc. a relatively poor neutron absorber CH4 (NR). 13 - If 2 mm (0.08 in.) of plastic attenuates a thermal neutron beam by a factor of 2, then 20 mm (0.8 in.) will attenuate it by approximately a factor of: - ANSd. 1000 CH4 (NR). 14 - Materials in common usage for moderation of fast-neutron sources include: - ANSb. water, plastic, paraffin, and graphite CH4 (NR). 15 - The main reason for using neutron radiography in place of X-radiography is:
- ANSc. the ability to image objects and materials not possible with X-rays CH4 (NR). 16 - A photographic record produced by the passage of neutrons through a specimen onto a film is called: - ANSc. a radiograph CH4 (NR). 17 - Many of the absorption differences between neutrons and X-rays indicate that the two techniques: - ANSb. complement each other CH4 (NR). 18 - The penetrating ability of a thermal neutron beam is governed by: - ANSa. attenuating characteristics of the material being penetrated CH4 (NR). 19 - The transfer exposure method is used because: - ANSa. it is not influenced by gamma radiation in the primary beam CH4 (NR). 20 - Higher resolution can be achieved in direct neutron radiography by: - ANSb. increasing the L/D ratio of the collimation system CH4 (NR). 21 - The primary advantage of using a Cf-252 source for neutron radiography is its: - ANSa. portability CH4 (NR). 22 - Quality of the results from a neutron radiographic exposure is best determined by: - ANSb. image quality indicators CH4 (NR). 23 - The radiographic image of discontinuities in the imaging screens can be separated from actual discontinuities in a part being radiographed by: - ANSa. comparing a neutron radiograph of the parts to a blank neutron radiograph of the same imaging screen with no parts in place CH4 (NR). 24 - For inspection of radioactive objects or those that emit gamma radiation when bombarded with neutrons, a preferable detection technique is the: - ANSb. transfer technique CH4 (NR). 25 - Neutron radiography is an excellent tool for determining: - ANSc. the integrity of thin plastic material within a steel housing
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CH4 (NR). 26 - Neutron radiography extends radiographic capability for detecting cracks in small cylinders of: - ANSd. plutonium CH4 (NR). 27 - Which of the following is not a preferred application of neutron radiography?
- ANSd. Detecting the presence of a lead rupture diaphragm in a small aluminum safety valve assembly CH4 (NR). 28 - Common sources of neutrons for neutron radiography are: - ANSc. nuclear reactors CH4 (Radiographic Testing). 1 - The penetrating ability of an X-ray beam is governed by: - ANSa. kilovoltage or wavelength CH4 (Radiographic Testing). 2 - Two X-ray machines operating at the same nominal kilovoltage and milliamperage settings: - ANSd. may give not only different intensities but also different energies of radiation CH4 (Radiographic Testing). 3 - Short wavelength electromagnetic radiation produced during the disintegration of nuclei of radioactive substances is called: - ANSb. gamma radiation CH4 (Radiographic Testing). 4 - Almost all gamma radiography is performed with: - ANSb. artificially produced isotopes CH4 (Radiographic Testing). 5 - The energy of gamma rays is expressed by which of the following units of measurement? - ANSd. Kiloelectronvolts (keV) or megaelectronvolts (MeV) CH4 (Radiographic Testing). 6 - Of the following, the source providing the most penetrating radiation is: - ANSc. 15 MeV betatron CH4 (Radiographic Testing). 7 - The difference between the densities of two areas of a radiograph is called: - ANSa. radiographic contrast CH4 (Radiographic Testing). 8 - The fact that gases, when bombarded by radiation, ionize and become electrical conductors makes them useful in: - ANSd. radiation detection equipment CH4 (Radiographic Testing). 9 - The reason exposure time must be increased by a factor of four when the source-to-film distance is doubled is that the: - ANSc. intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source to the film CH4 (Radiographic Testing). 10 - The most important factor in X-ray absorption of a specimen is: - ANSd. the atomic number of the material CH4 (Radiographic Testing). 11 - The maximum permissible dose per calendar year is 5 rem (0.05 Sv) for: - ANSc. whole body (total effective dose equivalent) CH4 (Radiographic Testing). 12 - Exposure to small doses of X-rays or gamma rays: - ANSa. has a cumulative effect that must be considered when monitoring for maximum permissible dose CH4 (Radiographic Testing). 13 - Which of the following technique variables is most commonly used to adjust subject contrast? - ANSc. Kilovoltage CH4 (Radiographic Testing). 14 - A basic difference between a radiograph and a fluoroscopic image is that: - ANSb. the fluoroscopic image is positive whereas the radiographic image is negative
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CH4 (IR). 4 - Thermal radiation reaching the surface of a thermally opaque object will only be: - ANSb. absorbed and reflected by the surface CH4 (IR). 5 - The following spectral band is included in the infrared spectrum: - ANSd. 0.75- 100 μm CH4 (IR). 6 - As a surface cools, the peak of its radiated infrared energy: - ANSa. shifts to longer wavelengths CH4 (IR). 7 - A graybody surface with an emissivity of 0.04 would be: - ANSc. almost a perfect reflector CH4 (IR). 8 - If a surface has an emissivity of 0.35 and a reflectivity of 0.45, its transmissivity would be: - ANSd. 0. CH4 (IR). 9 - The spectral band in which glass transmits infrared radiation most efficiently is the: - ANSb. 2-3 μm region CH4 (IR). 10 - Infrared thermal detectors: - ANSa. have a broad, flat spectral response CH4 (IR). 11 - A diffuse reflecting surface is: - ANSb. a surface that scatters reflected energy in many directions CH4 (IR). 12 - The minimim resolvable temperature difference is a sybjective measurement that depends on: - ANSc. the infrared imaging system's thermal senstitivity and spatial resolution CH4 (IR). 13 - The spacial resolution of an instrument is related to the: - ANSd. instantaneous field of view and the working distance CH4 (IR). 14 - The noise equivalent temperature difference (NETD) of a thermal infrared imager tends to: - ANSa. improve as the target temperature increases CH4 (IR). 15 - The 3-5 μm spectral region is well suited for the inspection of materials that exhibit: - ANSc. measuring targets warmer than 200 degrees C (392 degrees F) CH4 (IR). 16 - When measuring the temperature of glass while using a mid-wave (3-5 μm) infrared imaging system, which of the following steps is necessary? - ANSd. Use a 3.9 μm bandpass filter CH4 (IR). 17 - A line scanner is best used for applications: - ANSa. requiring online real-time process monitoring CH4 (IR). 18 - Most infrared focal plane array imagers: - ANSb. offer better spatial resolution than scanning radiometers CH4 (IR). 1 9 - When measuring the temperature of nongray target: - ANSd. errors may occur when using a variety of instruments CH4 (IR). 20 - Thermal diffusivity is: - ANSa. high for metals and low for porous materials CH4 (IR).21 - The term used to describe a material's surface temperature response to a given energy input is called: - ANSc. thermal effusivity CH4 (UT). 1 - Ultrasonic waves propagate through test materials in the form of: - ANSd. mechanical vibrations CH4 (UT). 2 - When an ultrasonic beam passes through the interface of two dissimilar materials at an angle, a new angle of sound travel takes place in the second material due to: - ANSa. refraction CH4 (UT). 3 - The gradual loss of energy as ultrasonic vibrations travel through material is referred to as: - ANSd. attenuation
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CH4 (UT). 4 - Ultrasonic velocities are different for different materials. These differences are primarily caused by differences in the materials': - ANSc. elasticity and density CH4 (UT). 5 - Ultrasonic energy for immersion testing is transmitted to the test object as a compressional wave because: - ANSb. liquids will only sustain compressional waves CH4 (UT). 6 - When inspecting coarse-grained materials, which of the following frequencies will generate a sound wave that will be most easily scattered by the grain structure? - ANSd. 10 MHz CH4 (UT). 7 - In general, shear waves are more sensitive to small discontinuities than longitudinal waves for a given frequency and in a given material because: - ANSa. the wavelength of shear waves is shorter than the wavelength of longitudinal waves CH4 (UT). 8 - The ability of transducers to detect echoes from small discontinuities is a definition of: - ANSb. sensitivity CH4 (UT). 9 - Which of the following will create a resonance condition in a specimen? - ANSa. Continuous longitudinal waves CH4 (UT). 10 - The display on most basic pulse-eacho ultrasonic instruments consists of: - ANSb. an A-scan presentation CH4 (UT). 11 - In a basic pulse-echo ultrasonic instrument, the somponent that produces the voltage that activates the search unit is called: - ANSc. a pulser CH4 (UT). 12 - The primary purpose of reference blocks is to: - ANSc. obtain a common reproducible reference standard CH4 (UT). 13 - The general use of distance-amplitude correction is to compensate for: - ANSa. attenuation, distance, and beam spread CH4 (UT). 14 - In area-amplitude ultrasonic standard test blocks, the flat-bottom holes in the blocks are: - ANSb. different in diameter, increasing in 0.4 mm (0.02 in.) increments from the No. 1 block to the No. 8 block CH4 (UT). 15 - Which of the following factors has the least influence on the amount of energy reflected from a discontinuity? - ANSd. Test frequency CH4 (UT). 16 - The presence of a discontinuity will not produce a specific discontinuity indication on the display screen when which of the following techniques is used? - ANSc. Through-transmittion testing CH4 (UT). 17 - Lack of parallelism between the entry surface and the back surface - ANSa. may result in a screen pattern that does not contain back reflection indications CH4 (UT). 18 - Significant errors in ultrasonic thickness measurement can occur if: - ANSb. the velocity of propagation deviates substantially from an assumed constant value for a given material CH4 (UT). 19 - In contact testing, shear waves can be induced in the test material by: - ANSc. using an angle-beam transducer with the transducer mounted on a plastic wedge so that sound enters the part at an angle CH4 (UT). 20 - The most commonly used method of producing shear waves in a test part when inspecting by the immersion method is by: - ANSd. angulating the search tube to the proper angle with respect to the entry surface of the test part
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CH4 (VT). 7 - What is the minimum luminance recommended by the Illuminating Engineering Society (IES) for task lighting with medium contrast and small size detection desired? - ANSc. 500 1x CH4 (VT). 8 - What is the direction of view called in a borescope or videoscope when viewing 45 degrees off the straight-ahead direction of the probe? - ANSb. Forward oblique CH4 (VT). 9 - How many bundles are there in a fiber optic borescope and what are they called? - ANSb. Two; light guide and CCD cable bundle CH4 (VT). 10 - Which remote camera system is singularly best suited to inspect stainless tubing for weld conditions or cleanliness, process piping, drain lines, and heat exchanger tubing? - ANSd. Push camera CH4 (VT). 11 - What is a commonly evident surface discontinuity visible to the unaided eye following forming? - ANSc. Edge breaks in temper-rolled sheets of steel CH4 (VT). 12 - What type of cracking occurs at the last termination point of a weld by shielded metal arc welding? - ANSa. Crater crack CH4 (VT). 13 - Which type of nuclear reactor vessel may have all its internal components removed from the vessel to allow visual inspection? - ANSb. Pressurized water reactor (PWR) CH4 (VT). 14 - What might be required after visual inspection of steel fasteners in wrought aluminum plate in a lap joint of an aircraft with evidence of exfoliation? - ANSd. Ultrasonic C-scan CH4 (VT). 15 - What is pillowing on aircraft lap joints, typically on aircraft skins, usually attributed to? - ANSc. Expansion of corrosion products under the skins CH4 (VT). 16 - When inspecting welds for discontinuities located by visual testing of pressure vessels and storage tanks, which of the following discontinuities is allowed to be present to some degree? - ANSa. Undercut CH4 (VT). 17 - Which of the following is an example of an organization that publishes standards for test techniques? - ANSd. ASTM CH4 (VT). 18 - How can the heat-affected zone (HAZ) of carbon steel welds be made visible? - ANSa. Etchants to enhance the visibility of the microstructure CH4 (VT). 19 - Pixels used in digital photographs or images is a term that comes from what combination of words? - ANSd. Picture elements CH4 (MFL). 1 - In magnetic flux leakage inspection for discontinuities using an active field, the part being inspected should be magnetized: - ANSb. to saturation or near saturation CH4 (MFL). 2 - An advantage that magnetic flux leakage testing has in comparison with electromagnetic testing is that magnestic flux leakage testing is: - ANSd. easier to use on ferromagnetic materials CH4 (MFL). 3 - What particular type of discontinuity would not typically be indicated by magnetic flux leakage techniques? - ANSc. Surface contamination CH4 (MFL). 4 - The strength of the magnetic field in the interior of a coil is determined by the: - ANSc. number of turns in the coil and the strength of the applied current CH4 (MFL). 5 - The current used for magnetization when performing magnetic flux leakage inspection must be a: - ANSa. steady nonfluctuating current
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CH4 (MFL). 6 - As a general rule, hard (high-strength) ferromagnetic materials have: - ANSb. high coercive force and are not easily demagnetized CH4 (MFL). 7 - In magnetic flux leakage testing, the greatest tube wall thickness for which maximum sensitivity can be maintained is: - ANSc. 8 mm (0.318 in.) CH4 (MFL). 8 - In the examination of above-ground storage tanks where the flux sensor is on the top surface: - ANSd. both top and bottom surface discontinuities can be detected but generally cannot be distinguished from each other CH4 (MFL). 9 - Materials that are weakly repelled magnetically are called: - ANSa. diamagnetic CH4 (MFL). 10 - A break in the magnetic uniformity of a part that is called a magnetic discontinuity is related to a sudden change in: - ANSc. permeability CH4 (MFL). 11 - A hysteresis curce describes the relation between: - ANSa. magnetizing force and flux density CH4 (MFL). 12 - When inspecting wire rope, a magnetic flux loop is used to monitor: - ANSd. reductions in cross-sectional area CH5 (Review CH1). 1 - Most solid metals and plastics that have reasonable strength at room temperature are called: - ANSd. engineering materials CH5 (Review CH1). 2 - Manufacturing refers to processing that starts with raw material in bulk form and is concerned mainly with processing the raw material in a manner that changes its: - ANSa. shape CH5 (Review CH1). 3 - Manufacturing processes change raw material by: - ANSb. machining CH5 (Review CH1). 4 - Frequently, dimensions are permitted to vary within specified limits. These variations are called: - ANSc. tolerances CH5 (Review CH1). 5 - Design engineers are responsible for establishing the function, appearance, quality, and cost of a product. Regarding the role of NDT in product design, which of the following is true? - ANSd. Designers should seek input from NDT personnel to ensure all required inspections can be performed CH5 (Review CH2). 1 - Under ordinary usage, metals exist as: - ANSc. crystalline solids CH5 (Review CH2). 2 - The terms "body-centered cubic", "face-centered cubic", and "hexagonal close-packed" all refer to the: - ANSc. lattice structures that make up unit cells in a solid metallic structure CH5 (Review CH2). 3 - Which of the following materials cannot typically be used in the as- cast state? - ANSb. Pure iron CH5 (Review CH2). 4 - Processes called "austenitizing", "annealing", and "normalizing" are:
- ANSa. approximate equilibrium heat-treatment processes CH5 (Review CH2). 5 - Annealing is usually performed to: - ANSc. remove strain hardening CH5 (Review CH2). 6 - The term "precipitation hardening" is often used interchangeably with the term: - ANSa. age hardening CH5 (Review CH2). 7 - In a tensile test on a cylindrical specimen, the strain measured on the specimen gage length is used to calculate: - ANSb. the strain rate CH5 (Review CH2). 8 - Which of the following material properties are of most concern if corrosion resistance is essential? - ANSd. Electrochemical properties
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CH5 (Review CH4). 6 - By which of the following processes is most of the world's steel produced? - ANSd. Basic oxygen furnace CH5 (Review CH4). 7 - What percentage of carbon is found in steel? - ANSd. Less than 2% CH5 (Review CH4). 8 - A steel with 40 points of carbon contains: - ANSc. 0.4% carbon CH5 (Review CH4). 9 - Low-carbon steel contains approximately: - ANSb. 0.06 to 0.25% carbon CH5 (Review CH4). 10 - Which of the following is true relative to the comparison of the properties of aluminum-based alloys and iron-based alloys? - ANSb. Iron can exist in several different crystalline structures, and its properties can be controlled by heat treatment CH5 (Review CH4). 11 - Corrosion-resistant steels having relatively high percentages of nickel and chromium are called: - ANSc. stainless steels CH5 (Review CH4). 12 - Austenitic stainless steels are paramagnetic; this means that: - ANSd. the material has a very low permeability CH5 (Review CH4). 13 - Which of the following is an advantage of cast steel over wrought steels? - ANSb. Cast steels have more isotropic properties than wrought steels CH5 (Review CH4). 14 - Which of the following nonferrous metals is the most important structural material? - ANSd. Aluminum alloys CH5 (Review CH4). 15 - Many metals exhibit an increase in strength caused by plastic flow beyond the elastic limit. This effect is called: - ANSc. work hardening CH5 (Review CH4). 16 - The heat treatment of aluminum for the purpose of hardening and strengthening: - ANSb. can produce tensile strengths equivalent to some carbon steels CH5 (Review CH4). 17 - Brass and bronze are alloys of zinc, tin, and a large percentage of: - ANSb. copper CH5 (Review CH4). 18 - Monel and Inconel are: - ANSa. nickel alloys CH5 (Review CH4). 19 - Which of the following metal alloys has a density approximately two-thirds that of aluminum? - ANSa. Magnesium CH5 (Review CH4). 20 - A high-strength, low-density, corrosion-resistant metal alloy of signigicance in the aircraft, marine, and chemical processing industries is: - ANSc. titanium CH5 (Review CH5). 1 - Which of the following statements is true concerning plastics following their initial polymerization? - ANSb. Thermosetting plasitcs do not soften, but char and deteriorate when reheated CH5 (Review CH5). 2 - Based on the strength-to-weight ratio: - ANSc. some plastics, including nylon, may have strengths greater than some steels CH5 (Review CH5). 3 - Which of the following statements is true regarding plastics processing? - ANSd. Both thermoplastics and thermosetting plastics may be processed by molding, casting, and extrusion CH5 (Review CH5). 4 - Reinforced plastic molding involves use of: - ANSa. thermosetting plastics and fibrous reinforcement materials CH5 (Review CH5). 5 - The major difference between materials classified as composites and those classified as mixtures is that: - ANSd. mixtures are a type of composite with random orientation and shape of the constituents
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CH5 (Review CH5). 6 - Which of the following statements is true concerning composite materials? - ANSa. Composite materials are engineered from one or more reinforcing agents and a matrix to increase strength and reduce weight CH5 (Review CH5). 7 - Which of the following materials is typically considered when the application requires high compressive strength? - ANSc. Carbon fibers CH5 (Review CH5). 8 - Which of the following statements is true concerning honeycomb? - ANSa. The function of a honeycomb core is to lighten, stiffen, and strengthen by utilizing the sandwich principle CH5 (Review CH5). 9 - The mechanism of adhesion may combine mechanical interlocking with: - ANSd. cohesion CH5 (Review CH5). 10 - Which of the following tests uses a pendulum to break a specimen that is notched and supported on both ends, with the result of measuring energy absorption? - ANSb. Charpy test CH5 (Review CH6). 1 - The design of the casting is important because the quality of the finished product can be adversely affected by all of the following except: - ANSd. temperature of the mold immediately prior to casting CH5 (Review CH6). 2 - The part of the casting where the gate or riser attaches: - ANSc. may provide a concentration point for discontinuities CH5 (Review CH6). 3 - Risers, feeders, or feed heads in castings serve to provide sources of molten metal to compensate for: - ANSd. shrinkage CH5 (Review CH6). 4 - Which of the following may cause a discontinuity even though its intended purpose is to prevent shrinkage cavities by absorbing heat from the molten metal in the center of the casting? - ANSb. Internal chill CH5 (Review CH6). 5 - In a casting, shrinkage occurs: - ANSc. before, during, and after the transformation from liquid to solid CH5 (Review CH6). 6 - Large voids or porosity in a casting result from: - ANSd. gas evolution before and during solidification CH5 (Review CH6). 7 - During the solidification of a casting, the shrinkage that occurs: - ANSa. may cause cavities that are enlarged by the evolution of gases CH5 (Review CH6). 8 - A casting process used to produce elongated shapes by drawing solidified metal from a water-cooled mold backed by molten metal is: - ANSb. continuous casting CH5 (Review CH6). 9 - Green sand casting molds include: - ANSa. sand, clay, and water CH5 (Review CH6). 10 - Which of the following NDT methods can be commonly used to inspect castings for core shift and unfused chaplets and to determine that all core materials have been removed? - ANSc. Radiographic testing CH5 (Review CH6). 11 - Mold material in the form of inserts that exclude metal flow and thus form internal surfaces or passages in a casting are called: - ANSc. cores CH5 (Review CH6). 12 - Small metal supports used to support and position cores become part of a casting by fusing with the molten metal. Such devices are called: - ANSd. chaplets CH5 (Review CH6). 13 - Casting molds made by covering a heated metal pattern with sand that is mixed with particles of thermosetting plastic are called: - ANSb. shell molds
