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What is the correct term used to describe an intravenous injection of a concentrated volume of contrast media? a. bolus b. infusion c. extravasation d. luminal - ANSa. bolus Which of the following methods utilizes a detector that captures x-ray energy and converts it into an electronic signal? a. indirect capture b. CCD c. cassette based radiography d. direct capture - ANSd. direct capture The energy of a characteristic x-ray photon created when an L shell electron fills a K shell vacancy in a tungsten atom will have which of the following energies? a. 69.5 keV b. 57.5 keV c. 91.5 keV d. 12 keV - ANSb. 57.5 keV The energy of characteristic photons is determined by the difference in binding energies between the two electron shells involved in the process, which in this question are K and L shells. 69.5 (K shell) minus 12 (L shell) equals 57.5. Identify the position that will place the positive contrast agent in the body of the stomach and pyloris during a double contrast upper GI exam? a. recumbent LPO b. supine c. recumbent RPO d. prone - ANSd. prone which position/projection will best demonstrate the broad aspect of the frontal air sinus? - ANSPA Which position will best demonstrate the right axillary portion of the ribs? - ANSRPO Which position will emphasize the mucosal lining of the medial wall of the descending colon during a lower GI exam? - ANSleft lateral decubitus Which projection of the wrist will best demonstrate the interspaces of the carpal bone? - ANSAP An image is acquired with computed radiography using which of the following methods? a. a cassette that is electronically charged b. conventional film/screen processing c. the use of a storage phosphor d. nonne of the above - ANSc. the use of a storage phosphor A transformer constructed with 10,00 primary turns and 2,500 secondary turns will yield an output voltage of _____ when being supplied with 210 volts. a. 2710 volts
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b. 52.5 volts c. 840 volts d. 525 volts - ANSb. 52.5 volts Which of the following circuit components is considered to be the source for kVp? a. step-up transformer b. autotransformer c. step-down transformer d. high voltage transformer - ANSb. autotransformer Which of the following meds is administered to a patient during an allergic reaction? a. Adenocard b. Intropin c. Lasix d. Decadron - ANSd. Decadron If the improper body part is selected from the exam menu, which of the following may result? a. there will be no image b. there may be image misinterpretation c. will exhibit proper contrast and density d. image sharpness will not be affected - ANSb. there may be image misinterpretation Which of the following combinations are needed in digital radiography system to produce an image? a. intensifying screen & TFT b. x-ray absorber & CCD c.. storage phosphor plate & CCD d. storage phosphor plate & TFT - ANSb. x-ray absorber & CCD Exposure latitude is also known as which of the following? a. dynamic range b. spatial resolution c. subject contrast d. characteristic response - ANSa. dynamic range All of the following components are within the glass/metal enclosure of the x-ray tube except... a. anode b. stators c. rotors d. filament wires - ANSb. stators Universal precautions should be practiced on.. a. all isolation patients b. CCU patients c. pediatric patients d. All patients - ANSd. All patients What is the minimum source to skin distance allowed for a mobile fluoroscopic unit? - ANS12 inches
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PA Axial skull is also known as... - ANSCaldwell method In a PA Axial skull, where should the petrous ridges be seen? - ANSprojected in the lower third of the orbits The CR for a PA axial skull? - ANS15 degrees caudad, exiting the nasion The CR for an AP axial skull? - ANS30 degrees caudad thru the foramen magnum to the OML Which line in perpendicular to the IR for a lateral skull? - ANSIPL The cassette-based digital image receptor uses which of the following as the image receptor? a. TFT b. PSP c. CCD d. none of the above - ANSb. PSP PA Axial 25 degree cephalic angle of the Skull is also known as... - ANSHass method or Reverse Towne Parietoacanthial projection is also known as... - ANSWaters method Which view demonstrates all 4 sinus groups without superimposition? - ANSlateral The waters view of the sinuses primarily demonstrates which sinus? - ANSmaxillary CR for AP axial C-spine? - ANS15-20 degrees cephalic, entering level of C CR for Anterior oblique of the C-spine? - ANS15-20 degrees caudad CR for Posterior oblique C-spine? - ANS1 5 - 20 degrees cephalic Anterior obliques of the C-spine demonstrate which foramina? - ANSthe foramina closest to the IR Posterior obliques of the C-spine demonstrate which foramina? - ANSthe foramina farthest from the IR AP/PA scoliosis series is also known as... - ANSFerguson method For an AP T-spine, where does the CR enter? - ANSlevel of T AP/PA Lumbar spine CR? - ANSperpendicular to the IR, at the level of iliac crest(L4-5). Lateral lumbar spine demonstrates... - ANSvertebral bodies, intervertebral joint spaces, and the intervertebral foramina. L5-S1 spot lateral demonstrates the possible existence of.... - ANSspondylolisthesis Posterior obliques of the L-spine demonstrate.... - ANSthe articular facets and zygapophyseal joints closest to the IR. Scotty dog anatomy: ear represents... - ANSsuperior articulating process Scotty dog anatomy: eye represents... - ANSpedicle Scotty dog anatomy: neck represents... - ANSpars interarticularis Scotty dog anatomy: nose represents... - ANStransverse process Scotty dog anatomy: leg represents... - ANSinferior articulating process CR for AP axial sacrum? - ANS15 degrees cephalad, midway between ASIS & pubic symphysis CR for AP axial coccyx? - ANS10 degrees caudad, 2 inches superior to pubic symphysis The preferred site for a spinal puncture during Myelography is... - ANSL3- 4 What is the primary pathology for a Myelogram? - ANSHNP (herniated nucleus pulposus) CR for AP axial Sacroiliac joints? - ANS30 degrees cephalic for males,
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35 degrees cephalic for females, 2 inches above the pubic symphysis Which SI joint is demonstrated on a posterior oblique? - ANSSI joint farthest from the IR Which SI joint is demonstrated on an anterior oblique? - ANSSI joint closest to the IR Where is the CR directed for a cross-table lateral hip (Daelius-Miller method)? - ANSperpendicular to the femoral neck Which view is performed in cases of possible bilateral hip fractures? - ANSAxiolateral inferosuperior projection (Clements-Nakayama method) AP oblique projection of the pelvis, acetabulum is also known as... - ANSJudet method Which position demonstrates the sternum over the heart shadow to the left of the vertebral column? - ANSRAO Lateral upper airway demonstrates: a. nasopharynx b. oropharynx c. hyoid bone d. trachea e. all of the above - ANSe. all of the above Which colic flexure lies lower than the other one? - ANSright colic flexure lies lower than the left colic flexure CR for supine KUB? - ANSlevel of iliac crests During an upper GI, the Upright PA shows... - ANSthe type and relative position of the stomach During an upper GI, the upright left lateral shows... - ANSthe left retrogastric space for a PA skull, how should the petous ridges be seen? - ANSfilling the orbits During an Upper GI, the recumbent PA(prone) shows... - ANSentire stomach and duodenal loop. Body and pyloris are filled with barium. During a BE, the right lateral decubitus demonstrates... - ANSthe medial side of the ascending colon & the lateral side of the descending colon During a BE, the left lateral decubitus demonstrates... - ANSthe medial side of the descending colon & the lateral side of the ascending colon During a BE, the LPO demonstrates... - ANSthe hepatic flexure and ascending colon During a BE, the RPO demonstrates... - ANSthe splenic flexure and the descending colon CR for PA axial sigmoid? - ANS30-40 degrees caudad, entering at the top of sacrum CR for AP axial toes? - ANS15 degrees cephalad CR for AP Axial foot? - ANS10 degrees toward the heel How many degrees do you rotate the foot for an oblique foot? - ANS Which of the following results in all-directional scatter? a. compton b. photoelectric c. classical d. coherent - ANSa. compton which of the following are byproducts of photoelectric absorption? a. photoelectron and Compton scattered electron
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b. electrons c. disease d. manmade, electromagnetic energy - ANSd. manmade, electromagnetic energy Differences in density level between radiographic images of adjacent structures as seen in a completed radiograph define: a. photodisintegration b. radiographic density c. image attenuation d. radiographic contrast - ANSd. radiographic contrast The probability of occurrence of photoelectric absorption _________ as the energy of the incident photon decreases and the atomic number of the irradiated atoms _________. a. decreases markedly, increases b. increases markedly, decreases c. increases markedly, increases d. stays the same, increases - ANSc. increases markedly, increases The symbol Z indicates the: a. atomic weight of an atom b. atomic number of an atom c. number of vacancies in an atomic shell d. fluorescent yield - ANSb. atomic number of an atom CR for AP upright KUB? - ANS2-3 inches above the iliac crest What is the term for the number of x-rays emitted per inner-shell vacancy during the process of photoelectric absorption? a. Characteristic absorption b. Fluorescent yield c. Modified pair production d. Classical gain - ANSb. Fluorescent yield What is the effective atomic number of compact bone? - ANS13. Compton scattering is synonymous with: a. coherent scattering b. photoelectric absorption c. incoherent scattering d. photodisintegration - ANSc. incoherent scattering Which of the following is not another term for coherent scattering? a. Classical b. Elastic c. Unmodified d. Characteristic - ANSd. characteristic Which of the following is not a type of interaction between x-radiation and biologic matter? a. Compton scattering b. Bremsstrahlung c. Pair production
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d. Photoelectric absorption - ANSb. Bremsstrahlung According to the NCRP Report #160, a. individual effective doses have nearly quadrupled since the early 1980s. b. individual exposures have increased principally due to increased utilization of digital imaging technologies. c. the effective dose per individual in the United States primarily increased because of increased fluoroscopic interventional procedures and CT scans. d. individual exposures have decreased due to improved technology and more discrete utilization. - ANSc. the effective dose per individual in the United States primarily increased because of increased fluoroscopic interventional procedures and CT scans. How long does the prodromal stage of acute radiation syndrome generally last? a. A few hours to several days b. Months c. Less than an hour d. Many years - ANSa. A few hours to several days What occurs as the number of photoelectric interactions increase? a. Absorbed dose increases b. Potential for biologic damage increases c. Radiographic contrast changes d. All of the above - ANSd. all of the above Alpha is what form of ionizing radiation? - ANSparticulate What can happen when the metabolic activity of cells increases as a result of irradiation? a. Cell reproduction ceases b. Cells reproduce more rapidly c. Cells atrophy d. Cell fluid viscosity decreases - ANSb. Cells reproduce more rapidly In a linear or nonlinear threshold dose-response relationship, which of the following is true of the biologic response to radiation? a. It will occur at all doses b. It may not occur at low doses c. It will never occur d. It is estimated to be proportional to the dose - ANSb. it may not occur at low doses Which interaction requires energy greater than 10 MeV? - ANSphotodisintigration The radiation weighting factor for x-ray or gamma radiation is: a. 2. b. 1. c. 10. d. 20. - ANSb. 1 What affects the speed of interphase and mitosis? a. The cell function b. The person's age c. The person's stress level d. All of the above - ANSd. all of the above
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d. Nonlinear threshold dose-response relationship - ANSb. Linear nonthreshold dose-response relationship All of the following would be classified as field survey devices EXCEPT: a. film badge. b. ionization chamber instrument. c. Geiger-Mueller counter. d. scintillation detector. - ANSa. film badge What is the full occupancy factor? a. 10 b. 100 c. 0 d. 1 - ANSd. 1 What increases the probability of biologic damage? a. Increased ionization per micron of soft-tissue b. Increased LET c. Reduced speed of particles d. All of the above - ANSd. all of the above Which phase of the cell growth cycle has four subphases? a. M b. G c. S d. G2 - ANSa. M Most biologic damage resulting from diagnostic x-rays occurs from which of the following? a. Interaction of positive and negative ions b. Recombination of free radicals and positive water ions c. Hydrogen and hydroxyl ions d. Hydrogen peroxide and hydroperoxyl radicals - ANSd. Hydrogen peroxide and hydroperoxyl radicals What is the relationship between the units gray (Gy) and rad? a. 1 Gy = 100 rad b. They are equal c. 1 Gy = 1/100 rad d. 1 Gy = 0.1 rad - ANSa. 1 Gy = 100 rad Special gonadal shields should be employed any time the gonads are: a. being radiographed. b. within 1 mm of the primary beam. c. directly in the primary beam. d. within 5 cm of the primary beam. - ANSd. within 5 cm of the primary beam During Compton scattering, the incident photon energy is divided between the: a. incident photon and the scattered photon. b. recoil electron and the photoelectron. c. recoil electron and the scattered photon. d. incident photon and the recoil electron. - ANSc. recoil electron and the scattered photon
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What does the dose equivalent allow us to calculate? a. The effective absorbed dose of all types of ionizing radiation b. The quality factor of a given radiation dose c. The total ionizing radiation exposure during a specific period d. The amount of biologic damage from a particular radiation dose - ANSa. the effective absorbed dose of all types of ionizing radiation When an embryo-fetus is exposed to high doses of ionizing radiation, mental retardation is most likely to occur at what point in development? a. After week 30 b. During the first 2 weeks c. During the last trimester d. Between weeks 8 and 15 - ANSd. between weeks 8 and 15 Indirect action usually involves what molecule first? a. Non-critical (water) b. Critical c. DNA d. RNA - ANSa. Non-critical (water) What is the amount of radiation exposure at waist level under a protective lead apron? a. The same as the exposure to the embryo-fetus b. Zero c. Lower than the exposure level of the embryo-fetus d. About 10% of the level outside the lead apron - ANSd. About 10% of the level outside the lead apron Deterministic effects of ionizing radiation include all of the following EXCEPT: a. sterility. b. cancer. c. skin erythema. d. cataracts. - ANSb. cancer The maximum exposure received by the patient is at: a. the gonads. b. the area of interest. c. the skin entrance to the body. d. the skin exit to the body. - ANSc. the skin entrance to the body Which of the following is the most sensitive personnel monitoring device? a. OSL b. TLD c. Film badge - ANSa. OSL Secondary barriers are intended to intercept: a. scatter radiation from the patient. b. leakage radiation from the x-ray tube. c. primary beam that exits the patient. d. both a and b - ANSd. both a and b Diagnostic x-rays are considered to have an RBE of:
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c. Anyone likely to receive more than 1% of the annual total effective dose equivalent in 1 month d. Everyone working in a radiation facility - ANSc. Anyone likely to receive more than 1% of the annual total effective dose equivalent in 1 month How does the size of a radiation dose affect mean survival time? a. As the dose increases, the mean survival time decreases b. As the dose increases, the mean survival time increases c. As the dose decreases, the mean survival time decreases d. No relationship has been established - ANSa. As the dose increases, the mean survival time decreases As linear energy transfer(LET) decreases, how is relative biologic effectiveness(RBE) affected? a. RBE is not affected by LET b. decreasing LET neutralizes RBE c. decreasing LET increases RBE d. decreasing LET decreases RBE - ANSd. decreasing LET decreases RBE How should the technologist identify an in-patient prior to beginning an exam? a. ask the secretary b. check the patient's ID bracelet c. ask the patient their full name d. shout the patient's name out - ANSb. check the patient's ID bracelet An ER patient's dressing over the site of a puncture wound to the upper extremity quickly becomes saturated with blood. What should be the technologist's first response? a. apply ice over wound b. apply pressure distal to the site and elevate the arm c. apply direct pressure to the site and elevate the arm d. remove the bandage and replace it with a fresh one - ANSc. apply direct pressure an elevate the arm Identify the type of contrast below that would be the first choice when performing an injection to evaluate a sinus tract in a patient's abdomen? a. water soluble iodinated media b. barium suspension c. oily based iodinated media d. gaseous media - ANSa. water soluble iodinated media Urticaria is the medical term for... - ANShives At what site would you expect to measure the highest value for a "normal" patient temperature? a. oral b. rectal c. axillary d. inguinal - ANSb. rectal what is the minimum height required for hanging an IV to prevent blood from backing up in a patient's IV tubing?
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a. 2 times the measurement of the patient's chest b. 40 cm (16 inches) above the patient's arm c. 30 cm (12 inches) above the table d. 45 cm (18 inches) above the level of the vein - ANSd. 45 cm (18 inches) above the level of the vein What device would be used to perform Auscultaion following blunt trauma to a patient's chest? a. sphygmomanometer b. thermometer c. scintillation scanner d. stethoscope - ANSd. stethoscope Performing a radiographic procedure on the wrong patient could result in which of the following violations by the radiographer? a. negligence b. assault c. invasion of privacy d. battery - ANSd. battery Logrolling is the appropriate method of moving a patient with which of the following conditions? a. skull injury b. upper extremity fracture c. spinal injury d. lower extremity fracture - ANSc. spinal injury An intravenous solution bottle or bag should be kept a minimum of _____ centimeters above the level of the vein. a. 25 cm b. 35 cm c. 45 cm d. 76 cm - ANSc. 45 cm which of the following is not among the patient's bill of rights? a. right to immediate results of a radiographic exam b. right to reasonable continuity of care c. right to confidentiality d. right to considerate and respectful care - ANSa. right to immediate results The destruction of pathogens by using chemical materials is called: a. medical asepsis b. contamination c. sterilization d. disinfection - ANSd. disinfection which of the following types of isolation techniques would most likely be applied to a patient with a depressed immune system? a. strict b. protective
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Which of the following procedures would require written informed consent? a. IVU b. UGI c. BE d. Acute abdominal series - ANSa. IVU Which of the following has no bearing on the type and volume of contrast used on a particular patient? a. age b. weight c. gender d. medication used - ANSc. gender Which of the following types of shock is the result of external hemorrhage, lacerations, or plasma loss? a. septic shock b. anaphylaxis c. cardiogenic shock d. hypovolemic shock - ANSd. hypovolemic shock Which of the following is an example of a moderate reaction to a contrast agent? a. nausea and vomiting b. very low blood pressure c. tachycardia d. cyanosis - ANSc. tachycardia What are the 5 things required to be on the requisition? - ANS1. the patient to be examined
- the exact region or part to be radiographed
- the suspected or existing patient diagnosis
- the ordering physician
- the date of the requisition What does HIPAA stand for? - ANSHealth Insurance Portability and Accountability Act What are the 7 C's of malpractice prevention? - ANScompetence compliance charting communication confidentiality courtesy carefulness "Res ipsa loquitur" means... - ANSthe thing speaks for itself "Respondeat superior" means... - ANSlet the master answer What are the 5 steps of the grieving process? - ANSdenial anger bargaining depression acceptance what does AMS stand for? - ANSaltered mental status
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Is it better to push or pull a heavy object? - ANSpush For an unresponsive or unconscious patient, which pulse palpation site should you use? a. radial artery b. femoral artery c. carotid artery d. temporal artery - ANSc. carotid tachycardia is.... - ANSfast heart rate, greater than 100 beats per minute bradycardia is... - ANSslow heart rate, less than 60 beats per minute The normal pulse rate for adults is... - ANS60- 100 the normal pulse rate for children is... - ANS90- 100 the normal pulse rate for infants is... - ANS80- 120 Hypertension values? - ANSabove 140 mmHg systolic, above 90 mmHg diastolic. Hypotension values? - ANSbelow 95 mmHg systolic, below 60 mmHg diastolic. what is the normal respiratory range for children? - ANS30 to 60 per minute When delivering high quality CPR, what is the compression rate? - ANSat least 100/min. What does DKA stand for? - ANSdiabetic ketoacidosis Describe hyperglycemia? - ANShigh blood sugar, occurs slowly, characterized by flushed, dry skin and mucous membranes, air hunger and fruity smelling breath, excessive thirst and urination describe hypoglycemia? - ANSlow blood sugar, occurs rapidly, characterized by sweating, clammy, cold skin, nervousness, and irritability, blurred vision What type of seizure is non-convulsive? - ANSpetite mal what type of seizure is also known as tonic-clonic? - ANSgrand mal What is epistaxis? - ANSnose bleed An inanimate object that has made contact with an infectious organism is a... a. fomite b. vehicle c. vector d. nosocomial infection - ANSa. fomite what is a nosocomial infection? - ANSa hospital acquired infection What method of sterilization uses steam? - ANSautoclaving when opening a sterile tray, the first flap of the sterile pack should be opened _______ the operator preparing the sterile tray for the exam. a. towards b. away from c. at a right angle from - ANSb. away from What is the Rule of 5's? - ANSAbout 5% of patients experience some reaction to contrast media. Of this population, only 5% experience a severe or life-threatening reaction. What are the 6 rights of drug administration? - ANSright patient right drug
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What is the bucky factor for a 5:1 grid? - ANS What is the bucky factor for a 6:1 grid? - ANS What is the bucky factor for a 8:1 grid? - ANS what is the bucky factor for a 10:1 grid? - ANS What is the bucky factor for a 12:1 grid? - ANS What is the bucky factor for a 16:1 grid? - ANS As filtration increase, receptor exposure ________. - ANSdecreases As the atomic number of an object increases, attenuation will ________. - ANSincrease If a digital imaging system can record 10 lines per millimeter, what is its spatial resolution? a. 1 lp/mm b. 5 lp/mm c. 10 lp/mm d. 20 lp/mm - ANSb. 5 lp/mm (it takes 2 lines to make a pair. 10 divided by 2=5 lp/mm) Which position/projection is necessary to demonstrate the intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine? a. PA or AP axial obliques b. AP axial c. lateral d. odontoid - ANSa. PA or AP axial obliques Generally, how much must a digital image receptor be overexposed in order to produce saturation? a. 1 X b. 2 X c. 3 X d. 4 X - ANSd. 4 X The distal end of an endotracheal tube should be placed how many centimeters above the carina? a. 1 cm b. 3 cm c. 5 cm d. 8 cm - ANSc. 5 cm Geometric unsharpness is directly proportional to which of the following?
SID
OID
SOD a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 & 3 d. 1, 2, & 3 - ANSb. 2 only Foreshortening of a radiographic image is the result of which of the following? a. angling the tube b. angling the part
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c. angling the image receptor d. increasing the SID - ANSb. angling the part What is the proper exposure for a photostimulable phosphor plate? a. 1 mR b. 2 mR c. 4 mR d. 8 mR - ANSa. 1 mR The skull and spine make up which of the following? a. true skeleton b. bony skeleton c. axial skeleton d. appendicular skeleton - ANSc. axial skeleton The brightness gained by an image intensification tube is the product of which of the following? a. minification gain times tube distance b. minification gain times flux gain c. flux gain time mA d. mA times kVp time tube-to-table distance - ANSb. minification gain times flux gain Which of the following refers to the kinetic energy released in matter? a. exposure rate b. kerma c. Bremsstrahlung d. kines - ANSb. kerma (KERMA stands for kinetic energy released in matter) How much should the patient be rotated for an RPO position during intravenous urography? a. 10 degrees b. 20 degrees c. 30 degrees d. 45 degrees - ANSc. 30 degrees What does CCD stand for? - ANScharged coupling device Which of the following types of primary radiation cannot be produced at tube potentials less than 70 keV? a. Bremsstrahlung b. characteristic c. primary d. secondary - ANSb. characteristic Which of the following DICOM standards assures digital images will look the same on various monitors? a. DICOM LCD b. DICOM encoding scheme c. DICOM grayscale standard display function d. DICOM capture system - ANSc. DICOM grayscale standard displayfunction
