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ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENT
EXAM ACTUAL EXAM 100
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
ANSWERS AND RATIONALES
GUARANTEED PASS!!
"A 72-year-old teacher comes to a skilled nursing facility for rehabilitation after being in the hospital for 6 weeks. She was treated for sepsis and respiratory failure and had to be on a ventilator for 3 weeks. The nurse is completing an initial assessment and evaluating the client's skin condition. On her sacrum there is full-thickness skin loss that is 5 cm in diameter with damage to the subcutaneous tissue. The underlying muscle is not affected. What is the stage of this pressure ulcer? A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Stage 3 D) Stage 4 - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) Stage 3 A crater appears in the skin, with full-thickness skin loss and damage to or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue that may extend to, but not through underlying muscle." "Mrs. Anderson presents with an itchy rash which is raised and appears and disappears in various locations. Each lesion lasts for many minutes. What most likely accounts for this rash? A) Insect bites B) Wheals, urticaria, or hives C) Psoriasis D) Purpura - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ B) Wheals, urticaria, or hives Wheals/urticaria - a somewhat irregular, relatively transient, superficial area of localized skin edema." "Ethel is a 68 year old Caucasian female who is new to your area. She shows you multiple brown colored, flat lesions on her face, chest, and hands that have been present for years. You respond that these are likely: A) solar lentigos B) melanomas C) keloids
D) fissures - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ A) solar lentigos solar lentigos are from sun damage, are more common on the face, shoulders, and hands." "A 27 year old female patient has three furuncles connected around a hair follicle. You use the following term in your charting: A) nodules B) carbuncle C) macules D) bulla - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ B) carbuncle Multiple furuncles around a hair follicle form a carbuncle." "A young man comes to you with an extremely pruritic rash over his knees and elbows which has come and gone for several years. It seems to be worse in the winter and improves with some sun exposure. On examination, you notice scabbing and crusting with some silvery scale, and you are observant enough to notice small "pits" in his nails. What would account for these findings? A) Eczema B) Pityriasis rosea C) Psoriasis D) Tinea infection - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) Psoriasis Psoriasis: silvery scaly papules or plaques, mainly on the extensor surfaces. Pitting: punctate depressions of the nail plate caused by defective layering of the superficial nail plate by the proximal nail matrix. Usually associated with psoriasis." "Suzanne, a 25 year old, comes to your clinic to establish care. You are the student preparing to go into the examination room to interview her. Which of the following is the most logical sequence for the patient-provider interview? A) Establish the agenda, negotiate a plan, establish rapport, and invite the patient's story. B) Invite the patient's story, negotiate a plan, establish the agenda, and establish rapport. C) Greet the patient, establish rapport, invite the patient's story, establish the agenda, expand and clarify the patient's story, and negotiate a plan. D) Negotiate a plan, establish an agenda, invite the patient's story, and establish rapport. - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) Greet the patient, establish rapport, invite the patient's story, establish the agenda, expand and clarify the patient's story, and negotiate a plan. The sequence of the interview: Greeting the patient and establishing rapport. Taking notes. Establishing the agenda for the interview. Inviting the patient's story. Expanding and clarifying the patient's story. Sharing the treatment plan." "A young woman undergoes cranial nerve testing. On touching the soft palate, her uvula deviates to the left. Which of the following is likely? A) CN IX lesion on the left
Give the patient free rein for the first 5-10 minutes, listening closely to the conversation. Focus on what seems most important to the patient. Learn to set limits when needed. A brief summary may help you change the subject yet validate any concerns. Do no show your impatience." "Which of the following will help to optimize success from a pediatric examination? A) Doing the examination out of order if necessary to take advantage of quiet periods for auscultation, etc. B) Being very orderly, so as not to miss a portion of the examination. C) Using firmness throughout your examination, letting the child know you are in charge. D) Making sure to place the infant on the table during the examination while Mom watches close by. - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ A) Doing the examination out of order if necessary to take advantage of quiet periods for auscultation, etc. With certain exceptions, physical examination does not require use of the examining table, or with the child in a parent's lap. Plan the examination to start with the least distressing procedures and end with the most distressing, usually involving the throat and ears. Patience, distraction, play flexibility in the order of the examination, and caring but firm approach are all key to successfully examining the young child." "A patient has come in for an examination and states, "I have this spot in front of my ear lobe here on my cheek that seems to be getting bigger and is tender. What do you think it is?" The NP notes swelling above the angle of the jaw and suspects it could be an inflammation of his: A) occipital node B) thyroid gland C) parotid gland D) none of the above - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) parotid gland The swelling of the parotid gland is seen anterior to the ear lobes and above the angles of the jaw." "All of the following are a common or concerning symptom in a health history for a respiratory assessment EXCEPT? A) palpitations B) blood-streaked sputum C) chest pain D) snoring - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ A) palpitations Chest pain, blood-streaked sputum, and snoring are all common or concerning symptoms in a health history for respiratory assessment." "A 29-year-old physical therapist presents for evaluation of an eyelid problem. On observation, the right eyeball appears to be protruding forward. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis? A) Epicanthus B) Ptosis C) Exophthalmos
D) Ectropion - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) Exophthalmos Eye protrusion (proptosis or exophthalmos)" "The nurse practitioner is performing an eye examination using the ophthalmoscope. Which component is NOT part of the ophthalmoscope? A) lens disc B) aperature C) indicator of diopters D) speculum - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ D) speculum See picture of ophthalmoscope (Bates p 238)" "A 15-year-old high school sophomore presents to the emergency room with his mother for evaluation of an area of blood in the left eye. He denies trauma or injury but has been coughing forcefully with a recent cold. He denies visual disturbances, eye pain, or discharge from the eye. On physical examination, the pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light, with a visual acuity of 20/20 in each eye and 20/ bilaterally. There is a homogeneous, sharply demarcated area at the lateral aspect of the base of the left eye. The cornea is clear. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis? A) Conjunctivitis B) Acute iritis C) Corneal abrasion D) Subconjunctival hemorrhage - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ D) Subconjunctival hemorrhage Leakage of blood outside of the vessels, producing a homogenous, sharply demarcated, red area. The pupil is not affected, vision is not affected and the cornea is clear. May result from trauma, bleeding disorders, or sudden increase in venous pressure, as from a cough." "The nurse practitioner is reviewing for a class in age-related changes in the eye. Which of these physiological changes is responsible for presbyopia? A) degeneration of the cornea B) decreased adaptation to darkness C) decreased distance vision abilities D) loss of lens elasticity - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ D) loss of lens elasticity The lens gradually loses its elasticity, and the eye grows progressively less able to accommodate and focus on nearby objects. Ensuing presbyopia usually becomes noticeable during the fifth decade. (Bates, p 959, 991)" "Mr. Q. is a 45-year-old salesman who comes to your office for evaluation of fatigue. He has come to the office many times in the past with a variety of injuries, and you suspect that he has a problem with alcohol. Which one of the following questions will be most helpful in diagnosing this problem? A) You are an alcoholic, aren't you? B) When was your last drink?
B) cholesteatoma C) otitis media D) otitis externa - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) otitis media Acute otitis media in a symptomatic child typically has a red, bulging tympanic membrane, with a dull or absent light reflex." "The nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who may have hearing loss. Which of these statements is true concerning air conduction? A) Air conduction is the normal pathway for hearing. B) Vibrations of the bones in the skull cause air conduction. C) Amplitude of sound determines the pitch that is heard. D) Loss of air conduction is called a conductive hearing loss. - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ A) Air conduction is the normal pathway for hearing. The normal pathway of hearing is air conduction, which starts when sound waves produce vibrations on the tympanic membrane. Conductive hearing loss results from a mechanical dysfunction of the external or middle ear. The other statements are not true concerning air conduction." "When examining the ear of a young child, which of the following is the proper technique to use? A) Examine the ear canal and tympanic membrane as the last steps in the exam if the child is sensitive or fearful. B) Pull the auricle downward, outward, and backward for the best view. C) Use the largest speculum possible on the otoscope. D) All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ D) All of the above. If a child is fearful or sensitive because she can't see the ear exam, you might need to restrain her so wait until the end of the exam. Use the largest speculum for the best view. For best visualization, pull the auricle downward, outward, and backward (Bates 867-869)." "The nurse practitioner might see which of the following physical findings in a patient with otitis externa? A) a bulging, red tympanic membrane B) an unusually prominent short process and prominent handle. C) a chalky, white patch with irregular margins on the inferior part of the tympanic membrane. D) Pain with the movement of the auricle and tragus (tug test): a swollen, narrowed, moist, pale and tender ear canal. - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ D) Pain with the movement of the auricle and tragus (tug test): a swollen, narrowed, moist, pale and tender ear canal. Frank blood or clear watery drainage (cerebrospinal leak) after trauma suggest a basal skull fracture and warrants immediate referral. Purulent drainage indicates otitis externa or otitis media. (Bates, 245-246)" "An Annual Low Dose Computed Tomography (LDCT) screening would be recommended for which patient?
A) Tammy, age 57, who smokes a half pack of cigarettes a day for the last 20 years. B) Bob, age 72, who quit smoking 10 years ago after a 30-pack year history. C) Angela, age 43, and started smoking when she was 15 years old. D) George, age 80, who lives with his wife and is a smoker. - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ B) Bob, age 72, who quit smoking 10 years ago after a 30-pack year history. LDCT screenings are recommended to patients 55-74 years, a 30-pack year smoking history or current smoking or have quit in the last 15 years (Bates, p315-316)." "NP is preparing to perform an otoscopic examination of a newborn infant. Which statement is true regarding this examination? A) Immobility of the drum is a normal finding. B) The light reflex is cone shaped in the first few days of life. C) The appearance of the membrane is identical to that of an adult. D) The normal membrane may appear thick and opaque because of the vernix caseosa obscuring the tympanic membrane for the first few days of life. - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ D) The normal membrane may appear thick and opaque because of the vernix caseosa obscuring the tympanic membrane for the first few days of life. During the first few days, the tympanic membrane often looks thickened and opaque because there is vernix caseosa obscuring the tympanic membrane (Bates, p825)." "The projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area are called the: A) Kiesselbach plexus B) turbinates C) meatus D) septum - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ B) turbinates The lateral walls of each nasal cavity contain 3 parallel bony projections: the superior, middle, and inferior turbinates. They increase the surface area so that more blood vessels and mucous membrane are available to warm, humidify, and filter the inhaled air (Bates, p250)." "All of the following are true of the nasal inspection EXCEPT: A) Tilt the patient's head back a bit and insert the speculum gently into the vestibule of each nostril. Avoid contact with the nasal septum. You should inspect the inferior and middle turbinates, the nasal septum, and the narrow passage between them. B) In viral rhinitis, the mucosa is usually reddened and swollen, and in allergic rhinitis the mucosa is often pale, bluish, or red. C) Examine the inside of the nose without a speculum on the otoscope keeping the otoscope 6-10 inches away from the tip of the patient's nose are you look at each nostril. D) Use the largest available ear speculum on the otoscope during inspection. - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) Examine the inside of the nose without a speculum on the otoscope keeping the otoscope 6-10 inches away from the tip of the patient's nose are you look at each nostril.
D) Are your immunizations up to date? - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) Have you received these vaccines in your lifetime? When did you receive them? Tetanus, pertussis, diphtheria, polio, measles, mumps, rubella, influenza, varicella, hepatitis B, haemophilus influenzae type B, pneumococcal, HPV? Find out whether the patient has received required and recommended vaccines. (Bates, 10)" "The assessment of a COPD patient will most likely reveal: A) resonant percussion sounds, no adventitious sounds and vesicular breath sounds B) dull percussion sounds and absent breath sounds. No crackles or wheezes C) resonant to hyper-resonant sounds with percussion and wheezes present D) diffusely hyper-resonant sounds with percussion, decreased or absent breath sounds per auscultation, decreased tactile fremitus, and no crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi. - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ D) diffusely hyper-resonant sounds with percussion, decreased or absent breath sounds per auscultation, decreased tactile fremitus, and no crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi. COPD is characterized by diffusely hyper-resonant sounds with percussion, decreased or absent breath sounds per auscultation, decreased tactile fremitus, and no crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi. (Bates, p340)" "Which of the following is true about auscultating the heart? A) the diaphragm is better for picking up the sounds of S1 and S2 and the bell is better for picking up the sounds of S3 and S4. B) The bell is better for picking up the sounds of S1 and S2 and the diaphragm is better for picking up the sounds of S3 and S4. C) The diaphragm is not necessary for accurate auscultation during the cardiac exam. D) The bell is not necessary for the cardiac exam, but it is necessary for accurate auscultation during the abdominal exam. - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ A) the diaphragm is better for picking up the sounds of S1 and S and the bell is better for picking up the sounds of S3 and S4. (Bates, p390)" "The nurse practitioner aucultates the heart and hears a murmur which she documents as 4/6 at its loudest point. She means the murmur is: A) moderately loud B) very loud, with thrill. May be heard when the stethoscope is partly off the chest. C) loud with a palpable thrill. D) quiet, but heard immediately after placing the stethoscope on the chest. - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) loud with a palpable thrill. Grade 4 is loud with a palpable thrill (Bates, p396)." "Physiologic splitting of the S2 in the 2nd and 3rd interspace, which is usually accentuated by inspiration, is caused by: A) the closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves B) the addition of the S4 sound C) the addition of the S3 sound
D) the closing of the tricuspid and mitral valves - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ A) the closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves Physiologic splitting of the S2 = closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves. Usually, the pulmonic valve closure is too faint to be heart but at the apex. The split is accentuated upon inspiration and disappears on expiration (Bates, p405)." "When assessing a patient's lungs, the nurse recalls that the left lung: A) is shorter than the right lung because of the underlying stomach. B) is divided by the horizontal fissure. C) consists of 2 lobes. D) consists primarily of an upper lobe on the posterior chest. - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) consists of 2 lobes. The left lung has 2 lobes, and the right lung has 3 lobes. The right lung is shorter than the left lung because of the underlying LIVER. The left lung is narrower than the right lung because the heart bulges to the left. The posterior chest is almost all lower lobe (Bates, p307)." "The primary muscles of respiration include the : A) trapezius and rectus abdominis. B) sternomastoids and scaleni. C) diaphragm and intercostals. D) external obliques and pectoralis major. - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) diaphragm and intercostals. The major muscle of respiration is the diaphragm. The intercostal muscles life the sternum and elevate the ribs during inspiration, increasing the anteroposterior diameter. Expiration is primarily passive. Forced inspiration involves the use of other muscles, such as the accessory neck muscles (sternomastoids, scalene, trapazii). Forced expiration involves the abdominal muscles (Bates, p309)." "When auscultating the lungs of an adult patient, the nurse practitioner notes that over the posterior lower lobes low-pitched, soft breath sounds are heard, with inspiration being longer than expiration. The nurse interprets that these are: A) bronchial breath sounds and are normal in that location B) sounds normally auscultated over the trachea C) vesicular breath sounds and are normal in that location D) bronchovesicular breath sounds and are normal in that location - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) vesicular breath sounds and are normal in that location Vesicular breath sounds are low-pitched, soft sounds with inspiration being longer than expiration. These breath sounds are expected over peripheral lung fields where air flows through smaller bronchioles and alveoli (Bates, p324)" "The nurse practitioner is auscultating the chest in an adult. Which technique is correct? A) Instruct the patient to breathe in and out only through his or her nose.
D) The NP concludes that there is only a low likelihood that the patient has pneumonia. - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) The NP documents that there is positive egophony and he/she becomes highly suspicious of pneumonia. If "ee" sounds like "a" then egophony is present and it could be a sign of pneumonia. (Bates, p327)." "A teenage patient comes to the emergency room with complaints of an "inability to breathe and a sharp pain in my left chest." Your assessment findings include the following: Cyanosis, tachypnea, tracheal deviation to the right, decreased tactile fremitus on the left, hyperresonance on the left, and decreased breath sounds on the left. This description is consistent with: A) acute pneumonia B) an asthmatic attack C) a pneumothorax D) bronchitis - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) a pneumothorax With a pneumothorax, free air in the pleural space causes partial or complete lung collapse. If the pneumothorax is large then tachypnea and cyanosis are seen. Unequal chest expansion, decreased or absent tactile fremitus, tracheal deviation to the unaffected side, decreased chest expansion, hyperresonnant percussion tones, and decreased or absent breath sounds are found with the presence of a pneumothorax. (Bates, p 340)" "The diameter of the PMI is approximately: A) 1-2.5 cm in diameter and any larger is evidence of mitral valve prolapse B) 1-2.5 cm in diameter and any larger is evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy C) .5-1 cm in diameter and any larger is evidence supporting left ventricular hypertrophy D) .5-1 cm in diameter and any larger is evidence of mitral valve prolapse - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ B) 1-2. cm in diameter and any larger is evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy (Bates p 344)" "The direction of blood flow through the heart is best described by which of the following? A) Aorta - R atrium - R ventricle - lungs - pulmonary vein - L atrium - L ventricle - vena cava B) R atrium - R ventricle - pulmonary vein - lungs - pulmonary artery - L atrium - L ventricle C) R atrium - R ventricle - pulmonary artery - lungs - pulmonary vein - L atrium - L ventricle D) Vena cava - R atrium - R ventricle - lungs - pulmonary artery- L atrium - L ventricle - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) R atrium - R ventricle - pulmonary artery - lungs - pulmonary vein - L atrium - L ventricle Returning blood from the body empties into the R atrium and flows into the R ventricle, then goes to the lungs through the pulmonary artery. The lungs oxygenate the blood and it is then returned to the L atrium by the pulmonary vein. It goes from there to the L ventricle and then out to the body through the aorta (Bates, pg 345)" "When listening to heart sounds, the nurse knows that the valve closures that can be heard for S2 is: A) pulmonic
B) aortic C) tricuspid D) mitral - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ B) aortic The second heart sound (S2) occurs with the closure of the aortic valve and signals the end of systole. Although it is heard over all the precordium, S2 is loudest at the base of the heart. (Bates, p347)" "A 45-year-old man is in the clinic for a routine physical. During history the patient states he has been having difficulty sleeping. "I'll be sleeping great and then I wake up and feel like I can't catch my breath." His symptoms indicates sleep related symptoms of a certain type of disease, so which question would the NP want to ask? A) Have you had a recent sinus infection or URI? B) Do you have any history of problems with your heart? C) Do you think it is because it's been so hot at night? D) When was your last electroencephalogram? - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ B) Do you have any history of problems with your heart? Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea occurs with heart failure. Lying down increases volume of intrathoracic blood, and the weakened heart cannot accommodate the increased load. Classically, the person awakens after 2 hours of sleep, arises, and flings open a window with the perception of needing fresh air. (Bates, p357)" "In assessing a patient's major risk factors for heart disease, which would the nurse want to include when taking a history? A) Personality type, high cholesterol, diabetes, smoking B) Family history, hypertension, stress, age C) Alcohol consumption, obesity, diabetes, stress, high cholesterol D) Smoking, hypertension, obesity, diabetes, and high cholesterol, activity level, family history - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ D) Smoking, hypertension, obesity, diabetes, and high cholesterol, activity level, family history For major risk factors for coronary artery disease, collect data regarding elevated serum cholesterol, elevated blood pressure, blood glucose levels above 130 mg/dL or known diabetes mellitus, obesity, cigarette smoking, low activity level (Bates, p358)" "In assessing the carotid arteries of an older patient with cardiovascular disease, the nurse would: A) palpate the artery in the upper one third of the neck. B) listen with the bell of the stethoscope to assess for bruits. C) palpate both arteries simultaneously to compare amplitude. D) instruct the patient to take slow deep breaths during inspiration. - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ B) listen with the bell of the stethoscope to assess for bruits. If cardiovascular disease is suspected, the nurse should auscultate each carotid artery for the presence of a bruit. The NP should avoid compressing the artery because this could create an artificial bruit, and it
D) Perform an echocardiogram after the examination. - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) No further response is needed because this is a normal variation. The rhythm should be regular, although sinus arrhythmia occurs normally in young adults and children. With sinus arrhythmia, the rhythm varies with the person's breathing. Increasing at the peak of inspiration and slowing with expiration (Bates, p401)." "Which of following is not found in the upper left quadrant of the abdomen? A) spleen B) left kidney C) pancreas D) gallbladder - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ D) gallbladder All except the gallbladder are found in the upper left abdominal quadrant. (Bates, p450-451)" "What is the correct way to perform the Whisper test to assess hearing? A) whisper a combination of 3 letters and numbers out of the patient's sight while occluding the other ear and have them repeat it, then test the other side. B) whisper, "Can you hear me?" C) have someone whisper a sentence outside the exam room door and have the patient repeat it D) whisper a sentence of 5 words and have the patient repeat it. - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ A) whisper a combination of 3 letters and numbers out of the patient's sight while occluding the other ear and have them repeat it, then test the other side. The Whisper test is recommended to be a combination of 3 letters and numbers while occluding the other ear. Have the patient repeat it, then test the other ear. (Bates, p246-247)" "Macular degeration effects: A) lateral vision B) peripheral vision C) central vision D) none of the above - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) central vision Bates, p 242" "Which of the following is not an ABCDE screening for melanoma? A) asymmetry B) borders C) clarity D) diameter - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) clarity Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter, and Evolution are the ABCDE for melanoma detection. (Bates, p179)"
"Ms. Jones complains of visible blood in her urine. This is called: A) hematochezia B) melena C) gross hematuria D) microscopic hematuria - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) gross hematuria Blood visible in urine with the naked eye is called gross hematuria. If the blood is not visible with the human eye and only when examined with a microscope, it is microscopic hematuria. (Bates, p463)" "Hepatitis A is transmitted via: A) IV drug use B) sexual contact C) fecal-oral route D) blood and body fluids - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) fecal-oral route Bates, p466" "Which of the following is the most common bloodborne pathogen in the United States? A) Hepatitis C B) HIV C) Hepatitis A D) Hepatitis B - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ A) Hepatitis C Hepatitis C is the most common bloodborne pathogen in the United States with about 2% of the population having the virus. Bates, p467-468" "In which order should the abdomen be examined in? A) auscultation, inspection, percussion, palpation B) inspection, percussion, auscultation, palpation C) percussion, palpation, inspection, auscultation D) inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ D) inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation Bates 471-475" "Auscultate for abdominal bruits of the following areas during abdominal exam: A) aorta, renal arteries, iliac arteries, femoral arteries B) lower right and left quadrants C) liver and spleen only D) femoral arteries and aorta only - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ A) aorta, renal arteries, iliac arteries, femoral arteries Bates 472-473"
B) silvery scaly plaques/papules C) vesicular lesions progressing to craters D) macular patches - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ B) silvery scaly plaques/papules Bates, p192" "When looking at the retina, a macular star is usually caused by: A) diabetes B) trauma C) hypertension D) none of the above - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) hypertension A macular star is also known as hypertensive retinopathy with macular star and is caused by high blood pressure. (Bates, p283)" "Mrs. Elkins presents today with a complaint of a productive cough and fever that is worsened over the past 2-3 days. Which of the following respiratory problems is LEAST likely to have this HPI? A) acute pulmonary embolism B) bacterial pneumonia C) mycoplasma pneumonia D) acute bronchitis - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ A) acute pulmonary embolism Acute pulmonary embolisms usually present suddenly and are not typically associated with a fever of several days (Bates, p334)" "When listening to heart tones, you hear a murmur that is quiet but heard immediately after placing your stethoscope on the chest. How would you classify this murmur? A) 4/ B) 1/ C) 3/ D) 2/6 - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ D) 2/ Bates, p396" "A patient notes that they have a history of goiter. What is a goiter? A) a type of skin lesion B) the primary lymph node used for cancer staging C) an enlargement of the thyroid D) an ear abnormality - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ C) an enlargement of the thyroid Bates, p221, 262" "You are assessing a patient with Wilson's disease and you see a golden/brown ring around the iris. This is called:
A) chalazion B) pterygium C) pinguecula D) Kayser-Fleischer ring - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ D) Kayser-Fleischer ring A ring around the iris from Wilson's disease is called a Kayser-Fleischer ring and it is from excessive copper (Bates, p276)." "If a patient is reporting light, gray colored stool, it is likely that ________ is missing from the stool. A) bile B) fiber C) bacteria D) mucus - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ A) bile Bile is what gives stools a darker color, so lighter, gray colored stools may indicate a bile duct obstruction (Bates, p461)." "Kidney pain is commonly described as "flank pain." Which of the following would be considered in the flank area? A) periumbilical B) costovertebral angle C) suprapubic D) epigastric - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ B) costovertebral angle Costovertabal angle (CVA) pain or tenderness with percussion is a common test for kidney pain (Bates, p463-464)." "At what age is colorectal cancer screening started in those with "average risk?" A) 50 B) 45 C) 25 D) 35 - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ A) 50 The recommendation for colorectal cancer screening starts at 50 years old for those with "average risk." Bates, p 469" "While performing a fundoscopic examination on a 38 year old African American female, the color of the fundus is a grayish brown, almost purple. You determine: A) this is a sign of diabetic retinopathy B) this is a sign of hypertensive retinopathy C) this indicates retinal detachment and requires immediate intervention D) this is a normal variation, no action is needed - CORRECT ANSWER ✅ D) this is a normal variation, no action is needed
