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ACLS Precourse Self Assessment
Answers
Quizzma Team April 6, 2024 Welcome to the ACLS Precourse Self-Assessment Test Answers page! The Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support (ACLS) Precourse Self-Assessment is a vital online tool designed to gauge a student’s proficiency and understanding in three critical areas: rhythm recognition, pharmacology, and practical application. Contents hide 1 ACLS Pretest Answers 1.1 Section 1: Rhythm Identification Answers 1.2 Section 2: Pharmacology Answers 1.3 Section 3: Practical Application Answers 2 How Many Questions Are on the ACLS Pre Test? 3 Can I Retake ACLS Pretest? 4 What is on the ACLS Pretest?
Completing the assessment before the course helps students identify strengths and weaknesses and focus on areas that need more review and practice. To enroll in the ACLS Course, you must achieve a score of 70% or higher on the Precourse Self-Assessment and present your report at the beginning of the class.
ACLS Pretest Answers
Section 1: Rhythm Identification Answers
For section 1, identify the rhythm by selecting the single best answer. Choose the correct option and select submit. Sinus tachycardia Answer : Sinus tachycardia.
Atrial flutter Answer : Atrial flutter. Supraventricular tachycardia Answer : Supraventricular tachycardia.
Third-degree atrioventricular block Answer : Third-degree atrioventricular block. Ventricular fibrillation Answer : Ventricular fibrillation.
Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia Answer : Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. Pulseless electrical activity Answer : Pulseless electrical activity.
Atrial fibrillation Answer : Atrial fibrillation. Sinus bradycardia Answer: Sinus bradycardia.
Second-degree atrioventricular block (Mobitz I Wenckebach) Answer: Second-degree atrioventricular block (Mobitz I Wenckebach). Ventricular fibrillation Answer : Ventricular fibrillation.
Supraventricular tachycardia Answer : Supraventricular tachycardia. Second-degree atrioventricular block (Mobitz II block) Answer: Second-degree atrioventricular block.
A. Giving adenosine 6 mg IV bolus B. Performing synchronized cardioversion C. Seeking expert consultation (Correct) D. Giving lidocaine 1 to 1.5 mg IV bolus A patient with STEMI has ongoing chest discomfort. Heparin 4000 units IV bolus and a heparin infusion of 1000 units per hour are being administered. The patient did not take aspirin because he has a history of gastritis, which was treated 5 years ago. What is your next action? Choose the correct option and select submit. A. Give aspirin 162 to 325 mg to chew (Correct) B. Give enteric-coated aspirin 75 mg orally C. Give enteric-coated aspirin 325 mg rectally D. Give clopidogrel 300 mg orally What is the indication for the use of magnesium in cardiac arrest? Choose the correct option and select submit. A. Ventricular tachycardia associated with a normal QT interval B. Shock-refractory ventricular fibrillation C. Shock-refractory monomorphic ventricular tachycardia D. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia-associated torsades de pointed (correct) In which situation does bradycardia require treatment? Choose the correct option and select submit. A. Hypotension (Correct) B. Systolic blood pressure greater than 100 mm Hg C. Diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mm Hg D. 12-lead ECG showing a normal sinus rhythm A patient is in cardiac arrest. High-quality chest compressions are being given. The patient is intubated, and an IV has been started. The rhythm is asystole. What
is the first drug/dose to administer? Choose the correct option and select submit. A. Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO (Correct) B. Atropine 1 mg IV/IO C. Atropine 0.5 mg IV/IO D. Dopamine 2 to 20 mcg/kg per minute IV/IO A patient with sinus bradycardia and a heart rate of 42/min has diaphoresis and a blood pressure of 80/60 mm Hg. What is the initial dose of atropine? Choose the correct option and select submit. A. 0.1 mg B. 3 mg C. 1 mg (Correct) D. 0.5 mg Which intervention is most appropriate for the treatment of a patient in asystole? Choose the correct option and select submit. A. Epinephrine (Correct) B. Defibrillation C. Transcutaneous pacing D. Atropine You arrive on the scene with the code team. High-quality CPR is in progress. An AED has previously advised “no shock indicated.” A rhythm check now finds asystole. After resuming high-quality compressions, which action do you take next? Choose the correct option and select submit. A. Perform endotracheal intubation B. Call for a pulse check C. Insert a laryngeal airway
capture. The patient is confused, and her blood pressure is 88/56 mm Hg. Which therapy is now indicated? Choose the correct option and select submit. A. Normal saline 250 mL to 500 mL bolus B. Atropine 1 mg C. Epinephrine 2 to 10 mcg/min (Correct) D. Adenosine 6 mg A 35-year-old woman has palpitations, light-headedness, and a stable tachycardia. The monitor shows a regular narrow-complex QRS at a rate of 180/min. Vagal maneuvers have not been effective in terminating the rhythm. An IV has been established. Which drug should be administered? Choose the correct option and select submit. A. Epinephrine 2 to 10 mcg/kg per minute B. Atropine 0.5 mg C. Lidocaine 1 mg/kg D. Adenosine 6 mg (Correct) A patient is in cardiac arrest. Ventricular fibrillation has been refractory to a second shock. Which drug should be administered first? Choose the correct option and select submit. A. Sodium bicarbonate 50 mEq IV/IO B. Atropine 1 mg IV/IO C. Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO (Correct) D. Lidocaine 1 mg/kg IV/IO A 62-year-old man suddenly experienced difficulty speaking and left-sided weakness. He meets initial criteria for fibrinolytic therapy, and a CT scan of the brain is ordered. Which best describes the guidelines for antiplatelet and fibrinolytic therapy?
Choose the correct option and select submit. A. Hold aspirin for at least 24 hours if rtPA is administered (Correct) B. Give aspirin 162 to 325 mg to be chewed immediately C. Give heparin if the CT scan is negative for hemorrhage D. Give aspirin 120 mg and clopidogrel 75 mg orally A 57-year-old woman has palpitations, chest discomfort, and tachycardia. The monitor shows a regular wide-complex QRS at a rate of 180/min. She becomes diaphoretic, and her blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg. Which action do you take next? Choose the correct option and select submit. A. Perform electrical cardioversion (Correct) B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG C. Seek expert consultation D. Establish IV access A patient is in cardiac arrest. Ventricular fibrillation has been refractory to an initial shock. If no pathway for medication administration is in place, which method is preferred? Choose the correct option and select submit. A. Endotracheal tube B. External jugular vein C. IV or IO (Correct) D. Central line A monitored patient in the ICU developed a sudden onset of narrow-complex tachycardia at a rate of 220/min. The patient’s blood pressure is 128/58 mm Hg, the PETCO2 is 38 mm Hg, and the pulse oximetry reading is 98%. There is vascular access in the left arm, and the patient has not been given any vasoactive drugs. A 12-lead ECG confirms a supraventricular tachycardia with no evidence of ischemia or infarction. The heart rate has not responded to vagal maneuvers. What is your next action?
A. Start rescue breathing B. Prepare to deliver a second shock C. Check the pulse rate D. Resume chest compressions (Correct) What is the maximum interval for pausing chest compressions? Choose the correct option and select submit. A. 25 seconds B. 10 seconds (Correct) C. 20 seconds D. 15 seconds You are providing bag-mask ventilations to a patient in respiratory arrest. How often should you provide ventilations? Choose the correct option and select submit. A. Every 6 seconds (Correct) B. Every 10 seconds C. Every 14 seconds D. Every 12 seconds What is the recommended depth of chest compressions for an adult victim? Choose the correct option and select submit. A. At least 2 inches (Correct) B. At least 1.5 inches C. At least 2.5 inches D. At least 3 inches What is the recommended compression rate for high-quality CPR? Choose the correct option and select submit. A. 90 to 100 compression per minute
B. 100 to 120 compressions per minute (Correct) C. 70 to 80 compressions per minute D. 50 to 20 compressions per minute How often should you switch chest compressors to avoid fatigue? Choose the correct option and select submit. A. About every 2 minutes (Correct) B. About every 5 minutes C. About every 4 minutes D. About every 3 minutes A patient’s 12-lead ECG is transmitted by the paramedics and shows a STEMI. When the patient arrives in the emergency department, the rhythm shown here is seen on the cardiac monitor. The patient has resolution of moderate (5/10) chest pain after 3 doses of sublingual nitroglycerin. Blood pressure is 104/70 mm Hg. Which intervention is most important in reducing this patient’s in-hospital and 30-day mortality rate? Answer: Reperfusion therapy. Your patient is not responsive and is not breathing. You can palpate a carotid pulse. Which action do you take next? Choose the correct option and select submit. A. Apply an AED B. Start rescue breathing (Correct) C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG D. Start an IV
