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AAAE ACE Operations Module 4 Security Training Course Questions and Verified Detailed Answers Graded A What Federal Act requires anyone who releases a reportable quantity of a hazardous substance, to include slow releases over a 24-hour period, to immediately notify the National Response Center? - Correct Answer The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) What Federal Act requires the development of emergency response plans that address fuel spills and exposures to hazardous waste? - Correct Answer The Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA) What is a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)? - Corre
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What Federal Act requires anyone who releases a reportable quantity of a hazardous substance, to include slow releases over a 24-hour period, to immediately notify the National Response Center? - Correct Answer The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) What Federal Act requires the development of emergency response plans that address fuel spills and exposures to hazardous waste? - Correct Answer The Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA) What is a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)? - Correct Answer A technical bulletin that describes how to use, handle, and dispose of specific chemical hazards What Federal Act(s) require MSDS be available and posted in all workplaces where hazardous materials exist? - Correct Answer The Emergency Planning Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA) and the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
USDOT identifies hazardous materials using a 4-digit number denoting what information about the hazard? - Correct Answer the first digit identifies one of nine hazmat classes; the last three digits indicate the exact material What type of fuel is in a fuel line colored black? - Correct Answer jet fuel What do the four colors (blue, red, yellow, white) of the OSHA hazmat labeling system represent? - Correct Answer blue - health hazard; red - fire hazard; yellow - reactive material; white - PPE required What do the numbers 0 through 4 represent in the OSHA hazmat labeling system? - Correct Answer the degree of hazard; 0 - minimum; 1 - slight; 2 - moderate; 3 - serious; 4 - severe What does a letter (A to Z) represent in the OSHA hazmat labeling system? - Correct Answer The type of PPE required Who is responsible for hazardous waste that exists on the airport? - Correct Answer The airport operator
At what temperatures is Jet-A most susceptible to ignition? - Correct Answer 100 to 165F What is a larger ignition risk, a partially full fuel truck or a mostly full fuel truck? - Correct Answer Partially full, due to the greater mixture of fuel fumes and oxygen At what point do vapors given off from a material form an ignitable mixture? - Correct Answer the flash point If a material has a flash point at or above 100F what is it considered? - Correct Answer combustible (ex. Jet-A) If a material has a flash point below 100F or a vapor pressure not exceeding 40psi, what is it considered? - Correct Answer flammable (ex. Avgas) At what temperature will a fuel ignite if compressed? - Correct Answer the auto ignition temperature At what rate will flames spread once fuel is ignited? - Correct Answer the flame spread rate
How often must fuel tanks be checked for water (sumping)? - Correct Answer daily Water is heavier than avgas and jet fuel; how long does it take for water to settle per foot of fuel tank depth? - Correct Answer avgas - 15min ; JetA - 60min Since fuel must be filtered for microorganism growth, what pressure difference between the inner and outer portion of the filter indicates that the filter must be changed? - Correct Answer 15psi What material is not recommended for above-ground fuel storage tanks? - Correct Answer fiberglass What is one method to reduce underground fuel storage tank corrosion activity related to soil resistivity? - Correct Answer cathodic protection What are two safety features commonly designed for above-ground fuel storage tanks? - Correct Answer retainment dike or double wall allowing for 100-110% of tank capacity ; painting tanks white for heat absorption What plan is required by EPA for all fuel storage facilities? - Correct Answer Spill Prevention, Control and Countermeasure (SPCC) plan
How far from the airport should operations personnel monitor bird activity? - Correct Answer 5 miles What two factors determine an airport's ARFF index? - Correct Answer length of the most demanding aircraft serving the airport and number of average daily departures What is the minimum ARFF index level for a certificated airport? - Correct Answer Index A How many average daily departures of the longest aircraft determine an airport's ARFF index? - Correct Answer 5 ; if less than 5, then the index below the longest aircraft serving the airport applies How does a fire extinguishing agent put out a fire? - Correct Answer prevents oxygen from mixing with the hydrocarbons, suppresses the release of fuel vapors, separates the combustible materials, and lowers the temperature of the fire What is the most common extinguishing agent on airfields? - Correct Answer AFFF (Aqueous Film Forming Foam)
When must ARFF equipment be available at an airport? - Correct Answer 15 minutes before to 15 minutes after an air carrier operation If a piece of ARFF equipment needs repair or maintenance, how long may FAA allow to restore the proper index? - Correct Answer 48 hours, with FAA concurrence What if a certificated airport cannot maintain ARFF Index A capability? - Correct Answer air carrier operations must be suspended How quickly must ARFF respond to an emergency? - Correct Answer One ARFF vehicle with all personnel in full protective gear must be able to release extinguishing agents at the midpoint of the furthest runway within three minutes of the alarm sounding; all other vehicles and personnel must arrive within 4 minutes How long must training records for ARFF personnel be kept? - Correct Answer 24 months How often must ARFF personnel receive recurrent training? - Correct Answer every 12 consecutive months to include one live-fire drill
What are the phases of Response in the disaster preparedness? - Correct Answer discovery; verification; response; resolution; What should the airport operator do immediately in the event of an accident or significant incident that impacts airport operations and safety? - Correct Answer Close the airport immediately What alert level involves a precautionary approach that would not normally cause serious difficulty or make the landing unsafe? - Correct Answer Alert I What alert level involves an aircraft emergency that may result in injuries and aircraft damage? - Correct Answer Alert II What alert level involves an actual aircraft accident? - Correct Answer Alert III What are the five types of exercises? - Correct Answer orientation seminar; drill; tabletop exercise; functional exercise; full-scale exercise At other than Class I airports, what are the exercise requirements? - Correct Answer Annual tabletop exercises
When may NTSB delegate an accident investigation to FAA? - Correct Answer For aircraft weighing less than 12,500lbs What plan should airports have if experiencing 6 inches or more of snow annually? - Correct Answer snow and ice control plan (SICP) When experiencing snow and ice conditions, what runway condition is the standard that FAA requires? - Correct Answer no worse than wet condition When should snow and ice clearing operations commence? - Correct Answer before accumulation is 1/2 inch for wet snow and 1 inch for dry snow What are snow clearance times based on? - Correct Answer removing one inch of snow weighing up to 25lbs per cubic foot from the primary runway What is the term for a chemical or liquid used on water or snow to lower the point at which the mixture will freeze? - Correct Answer freezing point depressant What is the limit of freezing point depression? - Correct Answer the lowest temperature (eutectic temperature) an amount of chemical (eutectic composition) will melt ice; i.e. the eutectic point